Showing posts with label Model MCQs. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Model MCQs. Show all posts

Friday, 17 June 2022

Model MCQs for TDP (General/Honours) 4th Semester Exam.

SOCIAL RESEARCH METHODS

SOE - 404 

101. ICSSR stands for

[A] Indian Council for Survey and Research

[B] Indian Council for strategic Research

[C] Indian Council for Social Science Research

[D] Inter National Council for Social Science Research

Answer is [C]

102. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:

[A] Copyright

[B] Thesis format

[C] Patenting policy

[D] Data sharing policies

Answer is [B]

103. A good thesis writing should involve

[A] Careful checking of references

[B] A clear and well written abstract

[C] Consistency in the way the thesis is written

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

104. The core elements of dissertation are

[A] Research Plan; Research Data; Analysis; References

[B] Executive Summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography

[C] Introduction; Literature Review; Research Methodology; Results; Discussion and Conclusion

[D] Introduction; Data Collection; Data Analysis; Conclusions and Recommendations

Answer is [C]

105. Which is the main objective of research?

[A] To review the literature

[B] To get an academic degree

[C] To summarize what is already known

[D] To discover new facts or to make a fresh interpretations of known facts

Answer is [D]

106. When planning to do social research, it is better to

[A] Be familiar with literature on the topic

[B] Approach the topic with an open mind

[C] Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it

[D] Forget about theory because this is a very practical

Answer is [B]

107. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’?

[A] Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors

[B] Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper

[C] Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work

[D] Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favoUr even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper

Answer is [C]

108. In Research Report _____ is used to acknowledge indebtedness

[A] Bibliography

[B] Index

[C] Appendix

[D] Foot-Notes

Answer is [D]

109. Research is

[A] Working in a scientific way to search for truth of any problem

[B] Finding solution to any problem

[C] Searching again and again

[D] None of the above

Answer is [A]

110. Which of the following is the first step in starting the research process?

[A] Searching sources of information to locate problem

[B] Survey of related literature

[C] Identification of problem

[D] Searching for solutions to the problem

Answer is [C]

111. The research is always

[A] Exploring new knowledge

[B] Verifying the old knowledge

[C] Filling the gap between knowledge

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

112. The first step of research is:

[A] Finding a problem

[B] Selecting a problem

[C] Searching a problem

[D] Identifying a problem

Answer is [D]

113. Research can be classified as:

[A] Basic, Applied and Action Research

[B] Quantitative and Qualitative Research

[C] Philosophical, Historical, Survey and Experimental Research

[D] All the above

Answer is [D]

114. Which of the following is not the Method of Research?

[A] Survey

[B] Historical

[C] Observation

[D] Philosophical

Answer is [C]

115. Research can be conducted by a person who:

[A] Is a hard worker

[B] Holds a postgraduate degree

[C] Has studied research methodology

[D] Possesses thinking and reasoning ability

Answer is [C]

116. The depth of any research can be judged by:

[A] Title of the research

[B] Objectives of the research

[C] Duration of the research

[D] Total expenditure on the research

Answer is [B]

117. Which of the following options are the main tasks of research in modern society?

[A] To discover new things

[B] To keep pace with the advancement in knowledge

[C] To systematically examine and critically analyse the investigations/sources with objectivity

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

118. Which of the following statement is correct?

[A] objectives should be pin-pointed

[B] another word for problem is variable

[C] objectives can be written in statement or question form

[D] All of the above

Answer is [A]

119. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of a research?

[A] Research is systematic

[B] Research is not passive

[C] Research is not a process

[D] Research is problem oriented

Answer is [C]

120. How can the objectivity of the research be enhanced?

[A] Through its validity

[B] Through its reliability

[C] Through its impartiality

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

121. A research problem is not feasible only when:

[A] It is researchable

[B] It has utility and relevance

[C] It is new and adds something to the knowledge

[D] It consists of independent and dependent variables

Answer is [D]

122. Research is conducted to

[A] Generate new knowledge

[B] Obtain research degree

[C] Reinterpret existing knowledge

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

123. Research ethics do not include

[A] Integrity

[B] Honesty

[C] Objectivity

[D] Subjectivity

Answer is [D]

124. Good ‘research ethics’ means

[A] Assigning a particular research problem to one Ph.D./research student only

[B] Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal

[C] Not disclosing the holdings of shares/stocks in a company that sponsors your research

[D] Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal

Answer is [A]

125. A research paper

[A] Is a compilation of information on a topic

[B] Can be published in more than one journal

[C] Contains original research as deemed by the author

[D] Contains peer-reviewed original research or evaluation of research conducted by others

Answer is [D]

126. Identify the correct sequence of research steps:

[A] Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, data collection

[B] Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, interpretation of findings

[C] Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, interpretation of findings

[D] Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, interpretation of findings

Answer is [D]

127. The Friendly relationship between Interviewer and respondent is called

[A] Morale

[B] Management

[C] Rapport

[D] Conclusion

Answer is [C]

128. Sending a Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called

[A] Mail Survey

[B] Interview

[C] Observation

[D] Panel

Answer is [A]

129. Questionnaire is filled by __________.

[A] Respondent

[B] Everybody

[C] Enumerator

[D] None of the above

Answer is [A]

130. There are mainly _______ sources of data

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

Answer is [B]

131. The original source from which the researcher collects information is

[A] Primary Source

[B] Secondary Source

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of these

Answer is [A]

132. Source of Data collected and compiled by others is called

[A] Primary Source

[B] Secondary Source

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of these

Answer is [B]

133. Readymade and readily available data is _______.

[A] Primary

[B] Personal

[C] Organizational

[D] Secondary

Answer is [D]

134. Hypothesis relates ________.

[A] Constant to constant

[B] Constant to variables

[C] Variables to constant

[D] Variables to variables

Answer is [D]

135. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations

[A] Historical research

[B] Descriptive Research

[C] Experimental Research

[D] Causal Comparative Research

Answer is [B]

136. What is a Research Design?

[A] Sampling using a sampling frame

[B] Literally the researcher’s briefcase

[C] Identifying people who are suitable for research

[D] Sampling of people, newspapers, television programmes etc.

Answer is [D]

137. Which one of the following is not a source of data?

[A] Administrative records

[B] Population census

[C] Sample survey

[D] None of the above

Answer is [A]

138. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on

[A] Primary Data only

[B] Secondary Data only

[C] Both Primary and Secondary Data

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

139. A doctor studies the relative effectiveness of two drugs of dengue fever. His research would be classified as

[A] Case Study

[B] Ethnography

[C] Descriptive Survey

[D] Experimental Research

Answer is [D]

140. The process not needed in Experimental Research is

[A] Controlling

[B] Observation

[C] Manipulation

[D] Content Analysis

Answer is [C]

141. The research which is exploring new facts through the study of the past is called

[A] Content analysis

[B] Historical research

[C] Mythological research

[D] Philosophical research

Answer is [B]

142. A null hypothesis is

[A] Subjective in nature

[B] The same as research hypothesis

[C] When there is no difference between the variables

[D] When there is difference between the variables

Answer is [C]

143. The process not needed in experimental research is:

[A] Controlling

[B] Observation

[C] Reference collection

[D] Manipulation and replication

Answer is [B]

144. The research that applies the laws at the time of field study to draw more and more clear ideas about the problem is:

[A] Experimental research

[B] Applied research

[C] Action research

[D] None of these

Answer is [A]

145. The main characteristic of scientific research is:

[A] Empirical

[B] Theoretical

[C] Experimental

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

146. The experimental study is based on

[A] Survey of literature

[B] Conceptual parameters

[C] Replication of research

[D] The manipulation of variables

Answer is [D]

147. Descriptive research studies is a category of research that aims to

[A] Achieve new insights of a concept

[B] Analyze characteristics of something

[C] Determine the Frequency with which something occurs

[D] Test the relationship between variables

Answer is [B]

148. Descriptive research is the type of research that

[A] Is made for performing the basic or pure research; it’s theoretical research

[B] Is intended for finding some solution to the problem considered

[C] Includes fact-finding enquires and surveys.

[D] Uses available information as the base to make the further critical evaluation

Answer is [C]

149. The longitudinal approach of research deals with _________.

[A] Short-term research

[B] Long-term research

[C] Horizontal research

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

150. Books and records are the primary sources of data in

[A] Clinical research

[B] Historical research

[C] Laboratory research

[D] Participatory research

Answer is [B]

151. Field-work based research is classified as

[A] Historical

[B] Empirical

[C] Biographical

[D] Experimental

Answer is [B]

152. Identify the incorrect statement:

[A] Scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory

[B] Hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon

[C] A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth

[D] A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations

Answer is [A]

153. Applied research is the type of research that

[A] Is made for performing the basic or pure research; it’s a theoretical research

[B] Is intended for finding some solution to the problem considered

[C] Includes fact-finding enquires and surveys

[D] Uses available information as the base to make the further critical evaluation

Answer is [B]

154. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method?

[A] Single group experiment

[B] Parallel group experiment

[C] Rational group experiment

[D] Residual group experiment

Answer is [D]

155. In the process of conducting research ‘Formulation of Hypothesis” is followed by

[A] Statement of Objectives

[B] Analysis of Data

[C] Selection of Research Tools

[D] Collection of Data

Answer is [C]

156. A reasoning where we start with certain particular statements and conclude with a universal statement is called

[A] Deductive Reasoning

[B] Inductive Reasoning

[C] Abnormal Reasoning

[D] Transcendental Reasoning

Answer is [B]

157. Primary data for the research process be collected through _______.

[A] Survey

[B] Experiment

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

158. Which of the following can be the source of primary data in research?

[A] Survey

[B] Experiment

[C] Survey and Experiment

[D] Survey and Reference

Answer is [C]

159. Observation is a Physical and ______ activity

[A] Mental

[B] Social

[C] Psychological

[D] Personal

Answer is [A]

160. ‘Ethnography’ describes _______.

[A] Way of life

[B] Culture

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] Progeny

Answer is [C]

161. Participant observation is the process of immersing yourself in the study of ______.

[A] People

[B] Options

[C] Methods

[D] Outcomes

Answer is [A]

162. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?

[A] Interview

[B] Schedule

[C] Rating scale

[D] Questionnaire

Answer is [D]

163. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire

[A] Revision of the draft

[B] Prepare a draft of questionnaire

[C] Writing primary and secondary aims of the study

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

164. Which one of the following is a research tool?

[A] Graph

[B] Diagram

[C] Illustration

[D] Questionnaire

Answer is [D]

165. Survey research studies _________.

[A] Events

[B] Processes

[C] Populations

[D] Circumstances

Answer is [C]

166. Formulation of hypothesis may NOT be required in:

[A] Survey method

[B] Historical studies

[C] Normative studies

[D] Experimental studies

Answer is [B]

167. Camera, tape recorder, video tape etc are _______ Devices of observation

[A] Casual

[B] Mechanical

[C] Technical

[D] Manual

Answer is [B]

168. In a ______ observation researcher stands apart and does not participate

[A] Structural

[B] Unstructured

[C] Non Participant

[D] Participant

Answer is [C]

169. Observation of an event personally by the observer is _______.

[A] Indirect observation

[B] Direct observation

[C] Controlled observation

[D] Uncontrolled observation

Answer is [B]

170. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?

[A] Quota sampling

[B] Stratified sampling

[C] Judgement sampling

[D] Convenience sampling

Answer is [B]

171. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalized bank in India, which one of the following would you follow?

[A] Area Sampling

[B] Quota Sampling

[C] Sequential Sampling

[D] Multi-stage Sampling

Answer is [D]

172. When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the most suitable sampling method is

[A] Lottery Method

[B] Cluster Sampling

[C] Stratified Sampling

[D] Convenient Sampling

Answer is [C]

173. Which of the following sampling method is appropriate to study the prevalence of AIDS amongst males and females in India in 1976, 1986, 1996 and 2006?

[A] Quota sampling

[B] Cluster sampling

[C] Systematic sampling

[D] Stratified random sampling

Answer is [C]

174. Which one is called non-probability sampling?

[A] Quota sampling

[B] Cluster sampling

[C] Systematic sampling

[D] Stratified random sampling

Answer is [A]

175. Sampling is advantageous as it ________.

[A] Saves time

[B] Helps in capital-saving

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] Increases accuracy

Answer is [C]

176. Random sampling is helpful as it is __________.

[A] Reasonably accurate

[B] Free from personal biases

[C] An economical method of data collection

[D] All the above

Answer is [D]

177. The data of research is ______.

[A] Qualitative only

[B] Quantitative only

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] Neither [A] and [B]

Answer is [C]

178. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?

[A] Quota Sampling

[B] Cluster Sampling

[C] Stratified Sampling

[D] Simple Random Sampling

Answer is [A]

179. Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling method?

[A] Quota Sampling

[B] Cluster Sampling

[C] Stratified Sampling

[D] Simple Random Sampling

Answer is [A]

180. The population information is called parameter while the corresponding sample information is known as

[A] Universe

[B] Statistics

[C] Inference

[D] Sampling design

Answer is [B]

181. Which one of the following is a non-probability sampling?

[A] Stratified

[B] Purposive

[C] Systematic

[D] Simple Random

Answer is [B]

182. A mean, median and mode are all examples of _____.

[A] Measures of coefficients

[B] Measures of correlation

[C] Measures of enumeration

[D] Measures of central tendency

Answer is [D]

183. Survey is a _______ Study

[A] Descriptive

[B] Fact finding

[C] Analytical

[D] Systematic

Answer is [B]

184. The first step in a survey is _______ of a problem

[A] Application

[B] Rejection

[C] Selection

[D] Planning

Answer is [C]

185. Survey is both intensive and _______.

[A] Deep

[B] Wide

[C] Extensive

[D] Accurate

Answer is [C]

186. Surveys on the basis of subject matter are of two types (1) Social Survey and 2)_______.

[A] Economic Survey

[B] Deep survey

[C] Intensive Survey

[D] Extensive Survey

Answer is [A]

187. For Report writing ______ % of time is devoted

[A] 17%

[B] 33%

[C] 25%

[D] 10%

Answer is [B]

188. The main objective of ______ study’s to acquire knowledge

[A] Exploratory

[B] Descriptive

[C] Diagnostic

[D] Descriptive and Diagnostic

Answer is [B]

189. Mean, Median and Mode are

[A] Measures of deviation

[B] Ways of sampling

[C] Measures of control tendency

[D] Measures of central tendency

Answer is [D]

190. In a _______ observation researcher is a part of observation

[A] Non-participant

[B] Participant

[C] Structural

[D] Unstructured

Answer is [B]

191. In a _______ observation researcher is a part of observation

[A] Non-participant

[B] Participant

[C] Structural

[D] Unstructured

Answer is [B]

192. Social Science deals with _____

[A] Objects

[B] Human beings

[C] Living things

[D] Non living things

Answer is [B]

193. An example of probability sampling is

[A] Quota Sampling

[B] Snow-ball sampling

[C] Purposive sampling

[D] Lottery method

Answer is [D]

194. A member of the population is called____

[A] Element

[B] Census

[C] Sample

[D] Group

Answer is [A]

195. Questions which seek information is called____

[A] Factual question

[B] Opinion question

[C] Hypothetical question

[D] Marginal question

Answer is [A]

196. Sending Questionnaire to a respondent with a request to complete and return by post is called

[A] Mail Survey

[B] Interview

[C] Observation

[D] Panel

Answer is [A]

197. The Friendly relationship between Interviewer and respondent is called____

[A] Morale

[B] Management

[C] Rapport

[D] Conclusion

Answer is [C]

198. A two way systematic conversation between an investigator and respondent is called

[A] Observation

[B] Schedule

[C] Interview

[D] Simulation

Answer is [C]

199. An instrument used in method is called

[A] Sample

[B] Technique

[C] Tool

[D] Survey

Answer is [C]

200. _____ prevent a researcher from blind search and intellectual wandering

[A] Data

[B] Sample

[C] Research tools

[D] Research design

Answer is [D]

Model MCQs for TDP (General/Honours) 4th Semester Exam.

SOCIAL RESEARCH METHODS

SOE - 404 

1. When planning to do social research, it is better to

[A] Approach the topic with an open mind

[B] Do a pilot study before getting stuck into it

[C] Be familiar with the literature on the topic

[D] Forget about theory because this is a very practical undertaking can’t have one without the other

Answer is [C]

2. We review the relevant literature to know

[A] What is already known about the topic

[B] What concepts and theories have been applied to the topic

[C] Who are the key contributors to the topic

[D] All of the above

Answer is [B]

3. A deductive theory is one that

[A] Allows theory to emerge out of the data

[B] Involves testing an explicitly defined hypothesis

[C] Allows for findings to feed back into the stock of knowledge

[D] Uses qualitative methods whenever possible

Answer is [B]

4. What does “sampling cases” mean?

[A] Sampling using a sampling frame

[B] Identifying people who are suitable for research

[C] Literally, the researcher’s brief-case

[D] Sampling people, newspapers, television programmes etc.

Answer is [D]

5. Which of the following is not a data-collection method?

[A] Research questions

[B] Unstructured interviewing

[C] Postal survey questionnaires

[D] Participant observation

Answer is [A]

6. Why is data analysis concerned with data reduction?

[A] Because far too much data is collected than is required

[B] Because we need to make sense of the data

[C] Because of the repetitions in answers to questionnaires

[D] Because the sample size has been exceeded

Answer is [B]

7. The core ingredients of a dissertation are

[A] Introduction; Data collection; Data analysis; Conclusions and recommendations

[B] Executive summary; Literature review; Data gathered; Conclusions; Bibliography

[C] Research plan; Research data; Analysis; References

[D] Introduction; Literature review; Research methods; Results; Discussion; Conclusion

Answer is [D]

8. Which of the following is a component of ethnographic research?

[A] Being immersed in a social group or setting

[B] Participant observation, interviews, and/or documentary analysis

[C] A written account of an ethnographic study

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

9. What is one of the main disadvantages of using the covert role in ethnography?

[A] It can be hard to gain access to the social group

[B] It is difficult to take notes without arousing suspicion

[C] The problem of reactivity: people may change their behaviour if they know they are being observed

[D] It is usually too time consuming and expensive to be a realistic option

Answer is [B]

10. What is a key informant?

[A] A group member who helps the ethnographer gain access to relevant people/events

[B] A senior level member of the organisation who refuses to allow researchers into it

[C] A participant who appears to be helpful but then blows the researcher’s cover

[D] Someone who cuts keys to help the ethnographer gain access to a building

Answer is [A]

11. What is the name of the role adopted by an ethnographer who joins in with the group’s activities but admits to being a researcher?

[A] Complete participant

[B] Participant-as-observer

[C] Observer-as-participant

[D] Complete observer

Answer is [B]

12. What are the two main types of data that can be used in visual ethnography?

[A] Positivist and interpretivist

[B] Qualitative and quantitative

[C] Nominal and ordinal

[D] Extant and research-driven

Answer is [D]

13. Which of the following makes qualitative interviewing distinct from structured interviewing?

[A] The procedure is less standardized

[B] “Rambling” off the topic is not a problem

[C] The researcher seeks rich, detailed answers

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

14. Which of the following is not a type of qualitative interview?

[A] Unstructured interview

[B] Oral history interview

[C] Structured interview

[D] Focus group interview

Answer is [C]

15. Why is it helpful to prepare an interview guide before conducting semi-structured interviews?

[A] So that the data from different interviewees will be comparable and relevant to your research questions

[B] So that you can calculate the statistical significance of the results

[C] In order to allow participants complete control over the topics they discuss

[D] To make the sample more representative

Answer is [A]

16. The introductory section of a research report should aim to

[A] Identify the specific focus of the study

[B] Provide a rationale for the dissertation, or article

[C] Grab the reader’s attention

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

17. What is the purpose of the conclusion in a research report?

[A] It explains how concepts were operationally defined and measured

[B] It contains a useful review of the relevant literature

[C] It outlines the methodological procedures that were employed

[D] It summarizes the key findings in relation to the research questions

Answer is [D]

18. Which of the following is not normally included in a written account of qualitative research?

[A] An introduction, locating the research in its theoretical context

[B] An explanation of the design of the study

[C] A discussion of the main findings in relation to the research questions

[D] A decision to accept or reject the hypothesis

Answer is [D]

19. Before submitting your dissertation, you should ensure that

[A] Your writing is free of sexist, racist and disablist language

[B] Other people have read your final draft

[C] You have proofread it thoroughly

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

20. Probability sampling is rarely used in qualitative research because

[A] Qualitative researchers are not trained in statistics

[B] It is very old-fashioned

[C] It is often not feasible

[D] Research questions are more important than sampling

Answer is [C]

21. Which of the following is not a type of purposive sampling?

[A] Probability sampling

[B] Deviant case sampling

[C] Theoretical sampling

[D] Snowball sampling

Answer is [A]

22. Why is an ethnographic study unlikely to use a probability sample?

[A] Because the aim of understanding is more important than that of generalization

[B] Because the researcher cannot control who is willing to talk to them

[C] Because it is difficult to identify a sampling frame

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

23. Apart from people, what else can purposive sampling be used for?

[A] Documents

[B] Timing of events

[C] Context

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

24. What can be generalized from a purposive sample?

[A] That the findings are true for broadly similar cases

[B] That the findings are true for the entire population

[C] That the opposite is true for people who are the opposite of those in the sample

[D] That purposive sampling is better than probability sampling

Answer is [A]

25. Which of the following is a problem associated with survey research?

[A] The problem of objectivity

[B] The problem of “going native”

[C] The problem of omission

[D] The problem of robustness

Answer is [C]

26. The key advantage of structured observation over survey research is that

[A] It does not rely on the researcher’s ability to take notes

[B] The researcher is immersed as a participant in the field they are studying

[C] It does not impose any expectations of behaviour on the respondents

[D] It allows you to observe people’s behaviour directly

Answer is [D]

27. It may not be possible to use a probability sample to observe behaviour in public places because

[A] The findings of such studies are not intended to have external validity

[B] It is not feasible to construct a sampling frame of interactions

[C] It is difficult to gain access to such social settings

[D] Researchers prefer not to use random samples whenever possible

Answer is [B]

28. Which of the following is not a type of sampling used in structured observation?

[A] Focal sampling

[B] Scan sampling

[C] Emotional sampling

[D] Behaviour sampling

Answer is [C]

29. One of the criticisms often leveled at structured observation is that

[A] It does not allow us to impose any framework on the social setting

[B] It only generates a small amount of data

[C] It is unethical to observe people without an observation schedule

[D] It does not allow us to understand the intentions behind behaviour

Answer is [D]

30. What is a research design?

[A] A way of conducting research that is not grounded in theory

[B] The choice between using qualitative or quantitative methods

[C] The style in which you present your research findings, e.g. a graph

[D] A framework for every stage of the collection and analysis of data

Answer is [D]

31. If a study is “reliable”, this means that

[A] It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted

[B] The measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions

[C] The findings can be generalized to other social settings

[D] The methods are stated clearly enough for the research to be replicated

Answer is [B]

32. What is a cross-sectional design?

[A] A study of one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes

[B] One that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood

[C] The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time

[D] A comparison of two or more variables over a long period of time

Answer is [C]

33. Cross-cultural studies are an example of

[A] Case study design

[B] Comparative design

[C] Experimental design

[D] Longitudinal design

Answer is [B]

34. The qualitative research strategy places a value on

[A] Using numbers, measurements and statistical techniques

[B] Generating theories through inductive research about social meanings

[C] Conducting research that is of a very high quality

[D] All of the above

Answer is []

35. You can manage your time and resources best, by

[A] Working out a timetable

[B] Finding out what resources are readily available to you

[C] Calculating a budget for likely expenditure

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

36. How can you tell if your research questions are really good?

[A] If they guide your literature search

[B] If they are linked together to help you construct a coherent argument

[C] If they force you to narrow the scope of your research

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

37. Which of the following should be included in a research proposal?

[A] Your academic status and experience

[B] The difficulties you encountered with your previous reading on the topic

[C] Your choice of research methods and reasons for choosing them

[D] All of the above

Answer is [C]

38. Which of the following should you think about when preparing your research?

[A] Your sample frame and sampling strategy

[B] The ethical issues that might arise

[C] Negotiating access to the setting

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

39. What practical steps can you take before you actually start your research?

[A] Find out exactly what your institution’s requirements are for a dissertation

[B] Make sure you are familiar with the hardware and software you plan to use

[C] Apply for clearance of your project through an ethics committee

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

40. Why do you need to review the existing literature?

[A] To make sure you have a long list of references

[B] Because without it, you could never reach the required word-count

[C] To find out what is already known about your area of interest

[D] To help in your general studying

Answer is [C]

41. A systematic literature review is

[A] One which starts in your own library, then goes to on-line databases and, finally, to the internet

[B] A replicable, scientific and transparent process

[C] One which gives equal attention to the principal contributors to the area

[D] A responsible, professional process of time-management for research

Answer is [B]

42. Research hypotheses are ______.

[A] Formulated prior to a review of the literature

[B] Statements of predicted relationships between variables

[C] Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted

[D] Both [B] and [C]

Answer is [D]

43. Research simply means a search for ______?

[A] Problems

[B] Facts

[C] results

[D] Topics

Answer is [B]

44. Research adopt ______method?

[A] Scientific

[B] Political

[C] Individual

[D] Public

Answer is [A]

45. Research is based on empirical evidences and ______ experience?

[A] Scientific

[B] Political

[C] Rational

[D] Observable

Answer is [D]

46. Who defined research is a systematic, controlled, empirical and critical investigation?

[A] Spencer

[B] Weber

[C] Kerlinger

[D] Morry

Answer is [C]

47. ______develop theories?

[A] Observation

[B] Case study

[C] Research

[D] Survey

Answer is [C]

48. ______ is a systematic step by step procedure?

[A] Observation

[B] Calculation

[C] Scientific method

[D] Participation

Answer is [C]

49. _______as a set of systematically interrelated concepts, definition, prepositions?

[A] Fact

[B] Theory

[C] Research

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

50. Who has define social research as "the systematic method of discovering new facts and verifying old facts"?

[A] P.V.young

[B] Emory

[C] Black & Champion

[D] None of the above

Answer is [A]

51. ______are empirically verifiable observation?

[A] Research

[B] Fact

[C] Theory

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

52. ______is the one important role in research?

[A] Deduction

[B] Induction

[C] Prediction

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

53. _____ means basing conclusions on facts without any bias and value judgement?

[A] Subjectivity

[B] Objectivity

[C] Verifiability

[D] All of the above

Answer is [B]

54. Relation with other aspects of research creates ______?

[A] Value-related problem

[B] Ethical problem

[C] Personal prejudice

[D] Bias

Answer is [B]

55. _______ is a systematic method of exploring, analyzing and conceptualizing human life in order to extend, corrector or verify knowledge of human behaviour and social life?

[A] Scientific research

[B] Qualitative research

[C] Social science research

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

56. The purpose of research is to discover answer to questions through application of______?

[A] Scientific procedure

[B] Scientific method

[C] Scientific research

[D] None of the above

Answer is [A]

57. _____ research is focused to collect knowledge without any intention to apply it?

[A] Pure research

[B] Exploratory research

[C] Applied research

[D] All of the above

Answer is [A]

58. Pure research is also known as ______?

[A] Fundamental research

[B] Action research

[C] Practical research

[D] None of the above

Answer is [A]

59. ______research is problem-oriented and action directed?

[A] Analytical research

[B] Action research

[C] Applied research

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

60. ______has defined case study is investigating the contemporary phenomena of real life?

[A] Omerry

[B] Yin

[C] Burus

[D] Sarantkose

Answer is [B]

61. Objectivity, generality, systematic and quality are the characteristics of _____.

[A] Case study

[B] Projective technique

[C] Narrative method

[D] Content analysis

Answer is [D]

61. Contextual analysis is a type of _______.

[A] Descriptive analysis

[B] Case study

[C] Historical analysis

[D] Content analysis

Answer is [D]

62. The narrative method is used in ______research in social science?

[A] Pure research

[B] Content analysis

[C] Applied research

[D] Case study

Answer is [D]

63. The term focused group was coined by?

[A] Powel

[B] Merton

[C] Ernest Dichter

[D] Mitchell

Answer is [C]

64. ______method help us to get the feedback about what people do over along period of time?

[A] Questionnaire

[B] Survey

[C] Case study

[D] Group interview

Answer is [B]

65. _________ is defined as a tentative or working proposition suggested as a solution to a problem.

[A] Research

[B] Hypothesis

[C] Objective

[D] Concepts

Answer is [B]

66. It essentially states that there is no relation between the variables of the problem.

[A] Hypothesis

[B] Crude hypothesis

[C] Refines hypothesis

[D] Working

Answer is [A]

67. __________ study which wants to determine the frequency of occurrence of an event of its association with something.

[A] Descriptive

[B] Formulate

[C] Explorative

[D] Diagnostic

Answer is [C]

68. This is an intensive and searching interview aiming at studying the respondent’s opinion, emotions or convictions on the habits of an interview guide.

[A] Clinical interview

[B] Depth interview

[C] Focused interview

[D] Directive interview

Answer is [B]

69. _________ as a method of collecting primary data in which a number of individuals with a common interest interact with each other.

[A] Group interview

[B] Depth interview

[C] Direct interview

[D] Focused interview

Answer is [A]

70. A __________question can be answered in one of the two responses

[A] Open type

[B] Closed type

[C] Dichotomous

[D] Multiple choice

Answer is [C]

71. ______ are those which are collected fresh and are original in character

[A] Primary data

[B] Secondary data

[C] Qualitative data

[D] Quantitative data

Answer is [A]

72. _______ observation, the observer has been told specifically what is to be observed

[A] Structured

[B] Controlled

[C] Discussed

[D] Participated

Answer is [A]

73. It enables the researcher to relate logically known facts to intelligent guesses about unknown conditions

[A] Research design

[B] Pre-test

[C] Hypothesis

[D] Pilot study

Answer is [C]

74. It enables the researcher to acquaint himself with current knowledge in the field in which he is going to conduct his research

[A] Social survey

[B] Review of literature

[C] Research proposal

[D] Research design

Answer is [B]

75. The ______ type of questionnaire calls for a free response in the respondent’s own words

[A] Closed

[B] Opened

[C] Structured

[D] unstructured

Answer is [B]

76. _________ data are verbal or other symbolic materials

[A] Quantitative

[B] Primary

[C] Qualitative

[D] Secondary

Answer is [C]

77. _________ is directed towards the solution of a problem

[A] Research

[B] Data collection

[C] Hypothesis

[D] Survey

Answer is [A]

78. _________ research is directed towards the solution of immediate, specific and practical problem

[A] Basic

[B] Diagnostic

[C] Applied

[D] Descriptive

Answer is [C]

79. Control is the essential ingredient of _________ method

[A] Descriptive

[B] Diagnostic

[C] Explorative

[D] Experimental

Answer is [D]

80. A meeting of persons face to face, especially for the purpose of formal conference on some point

[A] Interview

[B] Observation

[C] Participant observation

[D] Projective techniques/ survey

Answer is [A]

81. Information that is represented usually as words, not numbers

[A] Qualitative data

[B] Quantitative data

[C] Primary data

[D] Scientific data

Answer is [B]

82. ____ research focuses primarily on the meaning of subjective attributes of individuals or groups

[A] Quantitative

[B] Qualitative

[C] Social science

[D] Descriptive

Answer is [B]

83. A proposition which can be put to test to determine validity

[A] Hypothesis

[B] Operational definition

[C] Data collection tool

[D] Research design

Answer is [A]

84. Information collected by the researcher for the purposes of the project immediately

[A] Primary data

[B] Secondary data

[C] Qualitative data

[D] Quantitative data

Answer is [A]

85. It is the collection of data concerning the living and working conditionals of the people in a given community

[A] Sampling

[B] Social survey

[C] Case study

[D] Data collection

Answer is [B]

86. It takes place with persons known to have been involved in particular concrete situations

[A] Personal interview

[B] Focused interview

[C] Depth interview

[D] Repeated interview

Answer is [B]

87. It is a verbal method of securing data in field surveys

[A] Interview

[B] Participant observation

[C] Questionnaire method

[D] Projective technique

Answer is [A]

88. ________ implies a smaller representation of a larger whole

[A] Survey

[B] Population

[C] Sample

[D] Census

Answer is [C]

89. ______ as the conceptual structure within which the research is conducted

[A] Research proposal

[B] Research design

[C] Hypothesis

[D] Pilot study

Answer is [B]

90. _________ method in the application of valid and reliable research methods

[A] Experimental

[B] Scientific

[C] Survey

[D] Case-study

Answer is [B]

91. ________ is an organised enquiry

[A] Research

[B] Investigation

[C] Survey

[D] Experiment

Answer is [A]

92. A set of systematically related propositions specifying causal relationships among variables

[A] Research

[B] Theory

[C] Concept

[D] Hypothesis

Answer is [B]

93. ______ means basing conclusions on facts without any bias and value judgement

[A] Subjectivity

[B] Objectivity

[C] Research

[D] Theory

Answer is [B]

94. The search for answers to research questions is called collection of _________

[A] Facts

[B] Data

[C] Evidences

[D] Reasons

Answer is [B]

95. Bibliography means

[A] Foot Note

[B] Quotations

[C] List of Books referred

[D] Biography

Answer is [C]

96. “Social Science research begins and ends with observation” _____ stated by

[A] P.V. Young

[B] Sidney Webb

[C] Kaplan

[D] Rose

Answer is [B]

97. The first page of the research report is

[A] Appendix

[B] Bibliography

[C] Index

[D] Title Page

Answer is [D]

98. JRF is for

[A] Junior Research Functions

[B] Junior Research Fellowship

[C] Junior Fellowship

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

99. Ph.D stands for

[A] Doctor of Philosophy

[B] Degree in Philosophy

[C] Doctor of Psychology

[D] None of the above

Answer is [A]

100. UGC Stands for

[A] University Grants Commission

[B] Union Government Commission

[C] University Governance Council

[D] Union government Council

Answer is [A]

Friday, 4 February 2022

Model MCQs for TDP (General/Honours) 5th Semester Exam.

SOCIAL PROBLEMS IN INDIA

SOE - 505 

1. Hacking belongs to which type of crime?

[A] Crimes against individual

[B] Sedition

[C] Crimes against property

[D] Cyber crime

Answer is [D]

2. According to Lombroso criminals are not born criminals but they are _________ ?

[A] Criminaloids

[B] Very innocent

[C] Situational criminals

[D] Hackers

Answer is [A]

3. Malicious morphing belongs to……………… crime.

[A] Seditious

[B] Cyber

[C] Racial

[D] Misogynistic

Answer is [B]

4. Which Indian state has recently launched ‘Cyber Safe Women’ initiative?

[A] Telengana

[B] Uttar Pradesh

[C] Maharashtra

[D] West Bengal

Answer is [C]

5. In which city, the Union Home Minister launched India’s first Cyber Crime Prevention Unit called ‘Cyber AASHVAST’?

[A] Lucknow

[B] Jaipur

[C] Gandhinagar

[D] Ahmedabad

Answer is [C]

6. Upto what age of boys and girls is the Juvenile Justice Act, 2000, applicable?

[A] Upto 14 years

[B] Upto 16 years

[C] Upto 18 years

[D] Upto 21 years

Answer is [C]

7. The main function of police work is___.

[A] Security of VIPS

[B] Crime Investigation

[C] Administration

[D] Escorting Prisoners

Answer is [B]

8. ‘Crime in India’ is published by which organisation?

[A] Bureau of Police Research and Development

[B] L.N.J.P. National Institute of Criminology and Forensic Science

[C] S.V.P. National Police Academy

[D] National Crime Reports Bureau

Answer is [D]

9. What is ‘phishing’?

[A] Cheating

[B] Cyber Crime

[C] White collar crime

[D] Embezzlement

Answer is [B]

10. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

[A] Drug Abuse – Protection of Human Rights Act

[B] Wife battering – Domestic Violence Act

[C] Child Sexual Abuse – Immoral Traffic Prevention Act

[D] Commercial Sex – Juvenile Justice Act

Answer is [B]

11. Which of the following is not a type of cybercrime?

[A] Data theft

[B] Forgery

[C] Damage to data and systems

[D] Installing antivirus for protection

Answer is [D]

12. Cyber-crime can be categorized into ________ types.

[A] 4

[B] 3

[C] 2

[D] 1

Answer is [B]

13. What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian legislature?

[A] India’s Technology (IT) Act, 2000

[B] India’s Digital Information Technology (DIT) Act, 2000

[C] India’s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000

[D] The Technology Act, 2008

Answer is [C]

14. In which year India’s IT Act came into existence?

[A] 17th Sept 2000

[B] 18th Sept 2000

[C] 17th Oct 2000

[D] 18th Oct 2000

Answer is [C]

15. In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000 got updated?

[A] 2006

[B] 2008

[C] 2010

[D] 2012

Answer is [B]

16. The first computer virus is____?

[A] I Love You

[B] Blaster

[C] Sasser

[D] Creeper

Answer is [D]

17. Piracy is a_____.

[A] Civil crime

[B] Criminal Offence

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

18. The highest punishment given in India is ____.

[A] Heavy fine

[B] Amputation

[C] Life Imprisonment

[D] Capital punishment

Answer is [D]

19. What is the weakest link in cybersecurity?

[A] Weak encryption

[B] Humans

[C] Short passwords

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

20. The best way to minimize your digital footprint is to:

[A] Take fewer photos with your smartphone

[B] Travel less with your smartphone

[C] Post less on social media

[D] All of the above

Answer is [C]

21. 'Communal persons' are those who practice

[A] Social through religion

[B] Politics through religion

[C] Economic through religion

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

22. ____, "The antagonism practised by the members of one community against the people of other community and religion can be termed as communalism."

[A] Bipin Chandra

[B] D. E. Smith

[C] Ram Ahuja

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

23. In the first war of independence [1857], the Hindus, as well as the Muslims, had united to throw the British imperialism out of India. The British suppressed the movement and later on started making use of the policy of "_______" to instigate the Muslims against the Hindu and vice versa.

[A] Laissez-Faire

[B] Divide and rule

[C] Grievance Redressal

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

24. Identify from the following which is not according to A. P. Avasthi mention in the causes for the growth of communalism in India.

[A] Communal political parties and organizations have been fanning the fire of separatism

[B] The aggressive Hindu chauvinism championed by a few forces

[C] Separation and isolation found among the Hindus

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

25. Parts of Tripura are witnessing violent protest recently due to the proposed resettlement of _____.

[A] Mizo tribals

[B] Bru tribals

[C] Mahali tribals

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

26. Which of the following is not a source of social problem?

[A] Industrial development

[B] Orthodox approach

[C] Unemployment

[D] Progress of country

Answer is [D]

27. Cybercrime is defined as crimes committed on the internet using the ___ as either a tool or a targeted victim.

[A] Amateur (HAM) Radio

[B] Computer

[C] Television

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

28. Suicide, poverty, violence, alcoholism, terrorism, human trafficking, and many others are harmful nature of this experience is universal, existing all over the world. A social problem is also a matter of ___ perception.

[A] Social

[B] Personal

[C] Group

[D] Community

Answer is [B]

29. Identify from the following which is not according to A. P. Avasthi mention in the causes for the growth of communalism in India.

[A] Communal political parties and organizations have been fanning the fire of separatism.

[B] The aggressive Hindu chauvinism championed by a few forces.

[C] Separation and isolation found among the Hindus

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

30. Identify the following component of a social problem.

[A] Objective element

[B] Subjective element

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

31. Juvenile delinquency is found more in which part of the following?

[A] Rural

[B] Urban

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

32. Identify which of the following is not a part of the definitional components of terrorism.

[A] Terror purpose

[B] Political purpose

[C] Mob violence

[D] Destruction of property

Answer is [C]

33. Who has classified the preventive programmes as i) punitive prevention, ii) corrective prevention, and iii) mechanical prevention.

[A] McKay

[B] Lejins

[C] Ohlin

[D] Cohen

Answer is [B]

34. Borstal Schools are for the offenders in the age group of between ______.

[A] 12-14

[B] 15-18

[C] 16-21

[D] 16-20

Answer is [C]

35. 'Sex Offenders' comes under which types of disorganization?

[A] Social Disorganization

[B] Personal Disorganization

[C] Familial Disorganization

[D] All of the above

Answer is [B]

36. The best way to minimize your digital footprint is to:

[A] Take fewer photos with your smartphone

[B] Travel less with your smartphone

[C] Post less on social media

[D] All of the above

Answer is [C]

37. Cyber-crime in India are registered under the ____.

[A] IT Act, 2000

[B] RTE Act, 2009

[C] RTI Act, 2005

[D] None of the above

Answer is [A]

38. Identify the following in which cyber-crime can be committed.

[A] Tthe computer is the focus of a cyber attackthe computer is itself used to commit a cyber-crime against any person or organization or institution.

[B] The computer is itself used to commit a cyber-crime against any person or organization or institution.

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

39. Which of the following does not come under crimes under the Special and Local Laws (SLL)

[A] Narcotic Drugs & Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985

[B] Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006

[C] Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

[D] Commission of Sati Prevention Act, 1987

Answer is [C]

40. What are the schemes introduced by the Government of India to remove unemployment?

[A] Foundation stone of Dowry system

[B] Blind belief and superstitions

[C] Eradication of child marriage

[D] Links to poor health

Answer is [C]

Model MCQs for TDP (General/Honours) 3rd Semester Exam.

SOCIETY IN INDIA

SOE - 303 

1. When authority devolved to local units of governance that are accessible and accountable to the local citizenry, who enjoy full political rights and liberty. It thus differs from the vast majority of earlier efforts at decentralization in developing areas is known as

[A] Decentralization

[B] Centralization

[C] Democratic Decentralization

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

2. With the introduction of the _____ Constitutional Amendments, the decentralization has been democratized.

[A] 73rd

[B] 74th

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

3. 73rd and the 74th Amendments Acts was on?

[A] 1990

[B] 1991

[C] 1992

[D] 1993

Answer is [C]

4. What benefits of the scheme in Atal Bhoojal Yojana

[A] By the implementation of this scheme, groundwater will recharge consequently increasing the level of groundwater

[B] This scheme will also revive the water bodies like rivers so that the level of groundwater can be increased especially in the rural areas.

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

5. The targeted year of Jal Jeevan Mission is?

[A] 2020

[B] 2022

[C] 2024

[D] 2026

Answer is [C]

6. Which year is the deadline for completion of PMGSY (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana)?

[A] 2018

[B] 2019

[C] 2020

[D] 2021

Answer is [B]

7. “My idea of village swaraj is that it is a complete republic, independent of its neighbours for its own vital wants, and yet interdependent for many others in which dependence is a necessity." Who said this?

[A] Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

[B] M.K. Ghandhi

[C] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

8. Panchayati Raj system is a three-tier system in the state with elected bodies consist of?

[A] Village

[B] Taluk (block)

[C] District levels

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

9. On October 15, 1989, how many votes were struck down in the Rajya Sabha?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

Answer is [B]

10. In which year a new Panchayat Act was passed in Tripura Assembly?

[A] 1992

[B] 1993

[C] 1994

[D] 1995

Answer is [B]

11. In Tripura, the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 extends to the whole of the Tripura State except?

[A] The Municipal areas

[B] Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous Districts

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

12. Who is not a member of Panchayat Samiti?

[A] Pradhans of Gram Panchayats within the blocks become ex-officio members of the Panchayat Samiti.

[B] Members are not elected from villages within the block.

[C] Panchayat law one-third of the seats remain reserved for women

[D] Any member of Zillar Parishad within the electoral area of the block can be elected to the Panchayat Samiti.

Answer is [B]

13. __________ has mentioned about tribal languages in India originate from five language families, i.e. Andaman’s, Austro-Asiatic, Dravidian, and Tibeto-Burman.

[A] Virginius Xaxa

[B] Beniwal

[C] G. S. Ghurye

[D] Shashi Birathi

Answer is [B]

14. Tripura tribes in India live in which of the following territories

[A] The Himalayan belt

[B] Central India

[C] Western India

[D] The Dravidian region

Answer is [A]

15. Who has written the book "The Scheduled Tribes".

[A] M.N. Srinivas

[B] Risley

[C] G. S. Ghurye

[D] Hutton

Answer is [C]

16. Child Marriage Restraint Act, _____.

[A] 1829

[B] 1929

[C] 1729

[D] 1930

Answer is [B]

17. S.C. Roy has reported an instance of a grandfather marrying his granddaughter among which of the following tribe?

[A] Baiga

[B] Oraon

[C] Trobriand island

[D] Hopi

Answer is [B]

18. Who among the following thinker has studied "The Nuer of the Southern Sudan"

[A] Iravati Karve

[B] W.H.R. Rivers

[C] Horton and Hunt

[D] Evans-Pritchard

Answer is [D]

19. Who among the following thinker has used a comparative analysis to look out the four cultural zones with an idea to conclude on a regional pattern of social behaviour in an Indian society.

[A] Iravati Karve

[B] W.H.R. Rivers

[C] Horton and Hunt

[D] Evans-Pritchard

Answer is [A]

20. Which thinker said that the tribe looks upon Hindu ritualism as foreign and extra-religious even though indulging in it and in the worship of God.

[A] Herbert Risley

[B] G.S. Ghurye

[C] D.N. Majumdar

[D] Surajit Sinha

Answer is [C]

21. Animism is the work of ______.

[A] Max Muller

[B] E. B. Tylor

[C] James Frazer

[D] John McLennan

Answer is [B]

22. Who is the propounder of the theory of naturism?

[A] Max Muller

[B] E. B. Tylor

[C] James Frazer

[D] John McLennan

Answer is [A]

23. Which among the following thinkers categorized magic into – Homeopathic magic and Contagious magic.

[A] Max Muller

[B] E. B. Tylor

[C] James Frazer

[D] John McLennan

Answer is [C]

24. During the British period the emergence of new class/es was introduction, which is/are

[A] Zamindars

[B] Peasant proprietors

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

25. Telangana got its statehood in the year.

[A] 1 June 2014

[B] 2 June 2014

[C] 3 June 2014

[D] 4 June 2014

Answer is [B]

26. Which reports can be considered as landmarks in the history of democratic decentralization in India.

[A] Balwanth Rai Mehata Committee

[B] Ashok Mehata Committee

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

27. Who said the development of its villages is the true development of India.

[A] Rahul Gandhi

[B] B. R. Ambedkar

[C] Mahatma Gandhi

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

28. Identify which is not the objective of rural development in India.

[A] To develop farm, home, public service and village community

[B] To bring improvement in producing of crops and animals living condition

[C] To improve village virtual communication

[D] To improve villagers with their own efforts

Answer is [C]

29. Which are the key issues in Rural Development in India

[A] Development of alternate occupations other than agriculture

[B] Investment in Human Capital in rural areas

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

30. Union Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat launched which campaign for water conservation and water security in 1592 stressed blocks in 256 districts?

[A] Jal Jeevan Abhiyan

[B] Jal Shakti Abhiyan

[C] Jal Adhikaar Abhiyan

[D] Jal Paryavaran Abhiyan

Answer is [B]

31. Jal Jeevan Mission is announced by PM on?

[A] 26th Jan, 2018

[B] 15th Aug, 2018

[C] 26th Jan, 2019

[D] 15th Aug, 2019

Answer is [D]

32. Which among the following is a caste based occupations and exchange of services.

[A] Caste system

[B] Jajmani system

[C] Panchayat system

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

33. A tribe or sub-tribe is divided into number of clans that are further grouped into three or more groups or cluster of clans in order to maintain their individuality on a higher order to form a ______.

[A] Moiety

[B] Phratry

[C] Clan

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

34. When a tribe is socially divided into only two groups based on its social activities, each group is called _______.

[A] Moiety

[B] Phratry

[C] Clan

[D] None of the above

Answer is [A]

35. According to W.H.R. Rivers had reported about a moiety system existing among the Todas of Nilgiri Hills in Kerala, India. The dual organization of two groups are ____.

[A] Mongsen and Chungli

[B] Pezoma and Pepfuma

[C] Teivaliol and Tartharol

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

36. Which among the following describe by the government of India as “socially and educationally backward classes”

[A] Scheduled Tribe

[B] Scheduled Caste

[C] Other Backward Class

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

37. In which year the term Scheduled Caste appeared for the first time in the Government of India Act, _____.

[A] 1933

[B] 1934

[C] 1935

[D] 1936

Answer is [C]

38. In _____ marriage, the possibility of remarriage exists in case of divorce or death.

[A] Cenogamy Marriage

[B] Fraternal Polyandry

[C] Serial Monogamy

[D] Non-serial Monogamy

Answer is [C]

39. The practice of being actual or potential mate to one’s husband’s brother is called _____.

[A] Levirate

[B] Sororate

[C] Monogamy

[D] Cenogamy

Answer is [A]

40. The practice of being actual or potential mate to one’s wife’s sister is called _______.

[A] Levirate

[B] Sororate

[C] Monogamy

[D] Cenogamy

Answer is [B]

Model MCQs for TDP (General/Honours) 5th Semester Exam.

SOCIAL PROBLEMS IN INDIA

SOE - 505 

1. Crimes against women are broadly classified under as

[A] Crime identified under the Indian Penal Code (IPC)

[B] Crime identified under the special laws (SL)

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

2. Identify which is not related to wife-battering

[A] Slaps

[B] Torture

[C] Dowry

[D] Attempted murder

Answer is [C]

3. In Violence Against Women Torture is cruelty done by

[A] Husband

[B] In-laws

[C] Parents

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

4. Taking away a person unlawfully by force or fraud is related to which of the following

[A] Kidnapping

[B] Abduction

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

5. Who have stated "Unplanned capitalism and policy of laissez faire are responsible for social disintegration in the present age.

[A] Elliot and Merril

[B] Sorokin

[C] Karl Mannheim

[D] Bertrand Russell

Answer is [C]

6. Social problem has/have led to Social disorganisation in India are due to

[A] Poverty

[B] Unemployment

[C] Rising of population

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

7. Who has mentioned the four kinds of factors or situations i.e., Biological factors, Environmental factors, Loss of security and crisis in life which often disturb the individual disorganisation in the pattern of living.

[A] Queen and Mann

[B] Elliott and Merrill

[C] Dr. Mowrer

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

8. Who are known to be the problem drinkers.

[A] Those who can stand their liquor

[B] Those who cannot stand their liquor

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

9. "The Government of India have no desire to interfere with the habits of those who use alcohol in moderation and it is necessary in their opinion to make due provision for the needs of such provisions." The statement was enunciated in their excise policy in the year ______.

[A] 1905

[B] 1920

[C] 1937

[D] 1938

Answer is [A]

10. The gender gap in juvenile crime is diminishing because

[A] Girls are committing more crime

[B] More girls are getting caught committing crime

[C] Girls are reporting more crime

[D] All of the above

Answer is [B]

11. Who has classified the preventive programmes as i) punitive prevention, ii) corrective prevention, and iii) mechanical prevention.

[A] McKay

[B] Cohen

[C] Lejins

[D] Ohlin

Answer is [C]

12. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, ______.

[A] 2014

[B] 2015

[C] 2016

[D] 2017

Answer is [B]

13. Remand Home is/are run by the _____

[A] Government

[B] Voluntary agencies

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

14. Borstal Schools are for the offenders in the age group of between ______.

[A] 12-15

[B] 15-18

[C] 16-21

[D] 17-21

Answer is [C]

15. Social problems encountered in society are usually diverse in nature. Identify which among the following is not the factors responsible to be categorized:

[A] Economic

[B] Ameliorative

[C] Biological

[D] Psychological

Answer is []

16. Juvenile Justice Act of 1986, the maximum age for boys was ___ years and for girls ___ years.

[A] 18 & 16

[B] 18 & 21

[C] 16 & 18

[D] 18 & 18

Answer is [C]

17. Who has said all criminals are not 'born criminals'?

[A] Ferri

[B] Garofalo

[C] Lombroso

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

18. A social problem is any condition or behaviour that has negative consequences for large numbers of people and that is generally recognized as a condition or behaviour that needs to be addressed. This definition has _______.

[A] Subjective Component

[B] Objective Component

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

19. Which of the following is not characteristic of social problem?

[A] Generally regarded harmful for the society

[B] It has effect on a large section of a society

[C] Develops gradually and slowly

[D] All of the above

Answer is [C]

20. Different private troubles become defined as social problems in particular societies and in specific periods through a complex process of _______.

[A] Social construction

[B] Social condition

[C] Social creation

[D] social adoptation

Answer is [A]

21. When disputes occur over whether a particular condition or behaviour has negative consequences is known as _____.

[A] Personal problem

[B] Social problem

[C] Family problem

[D] Friends problem

Answer is [B]

22. When “A pattern of behaviour that constitutes” is called ______.

[A] Social problem

[B] Economic problem

[C] Political problem

[D] Religious problem

Answer is [A]

23. Social problems are solved by

[A] Social welfare program

[B] Social assistance

[C] Social legislation

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

24. The study of the violation of cultural norms in either formal (criminal) or informal (deviant) contexts is understood as _____.

[A] Social Disorganization

[B] Social Deviance

[C] Social problem

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

25. According to which the following sociologist tries to put the meaning of deviance is a violation of established contextual, cultural, or social norms, whether folkways, mores or codified law.

[A] G.R. Madan

[B] Ram Ahuja

[C] G. R. Madan

[D] William Graham Sumner

Answer is [D]

26. Deviant behaviour can best be understood as _____.

[A] Socially define

[B] Social context

[C] Social construction

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

27. There are many different theories that explain how behaviour comes to be classified as deviant and why people engage in it. Identify the following suitable classification.

[A] Biological explanations

[B] Psychological explanations

[C] Sociological explanations

[D] All of the above

Answer is [D]

28. Which of the following is not a source of social problem?

[A] Social change

[B] Poverty

[C] Personal development

[D] Personal disorganization

Answer is [C]

29. 'Sex Offenders' comes under which types of disorganization?

[A] Social Disorganization

[B] Personal Disorganization

[C] Familial Disorganization

[D] All of the above

Answer is [B]

30. 'Problem of working women' comes under which types of disorganization?

[A] Social Disorganization

[B] Personal Disorganization

[C] Familial Disorganization

[D] All of the above

Answer is []

31. "The evil of casteism and untouchability is a potent cause of maladjustment." This comes under which of the following types of disorganization?

[A] Social Disorganization

[B] Personal Disorganization

[C] Familial Disorganization

[D] All of the above

Answer is [A]

32. The problem of Hindu-Muslim disunity and conflict has been with Indian society ever since the conquest of Indian by Muslim rulers. This consequence of this evil Indian society remains as _______.

[A] Casteism

[B] Communalism

[C] Fundamentalism

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

33. “Threat to society” is the definition of _____.

[A] Economic problem

[B] Cultural problem

[C] Social problem

[D] Political problem

Answer is [C]

34. Which of the following is not a source of social problem?

[A] Social change

[B] Personal development

[C] Poverty

[D] Illiteracy

Answer is [B]

35. Which of the following is not a general attitude towards social problems?

[A] Indifference

[B] Fatalism

[C] Scepticism

[D] None of the above

Answer is [D]

36. The English word ‘crime’ is derived from the _____ term “Crimen” which means ‘charge’ or ‘offence’.

[A] Greek

[B] Latin

[C] French

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

37. Crime has traditionally been studied as a form of ____.

[A] Misbehaviour

[B] Against the law

[C] Deviant behaviour

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

38. Parliament can scrap a crime from the statute book and makes it lawful. Which on the following below scrap by the Parliament.

[A] POTA (Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002)

[B] TADA (Terrorism and Disruptive Activities (Prevention) Act, 1987)

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]

39. If abortion is legal in India than under which legally comes under?

[A] Medical Abortion of Pregnancy Act, 1972

[B] Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971

[C] Medicine Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1970

[D] None of the above

Answer is [B]

40. According to Sociologist Edwin Sutherland how many types/s of crimes on the basis of their atrocity and seriousness can be studied?

[A] Felony

[B] Misdemeanor

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None of the above

Answer is [C]