1. Which of the following is a feature of the Enlightenment era?
(A) Rationalism
(B) Empiricism
(C) Humanitarianism
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: The Enlightenment emphasized reason and rational inquiry (rationalism), the value of observation and experience (empiricism), and concerns for human welfare and rights (humanitarianism). Together these are key features of the era.
2. Which sociological perspective considers 'society as a stable system with a tendency towards equilibrium'?
(A) Interactionist perspective
(B) Functionalist perspective
(C) Conflict perspective
(D) All of the above
(B) Functionalist perspective
Explanation: Functionalism views society as an integrated whole where different parts work together to maintain stability and social equilibrium; it emphasizes social functions and cohesion.
3. The book The Positive Philosophy was published in the year
(A) 1838
(B) 1853
(C) 1832
(D) None of the above
(B) 1853
Explanation: Auguste Comte's Cours de philosophie positive was published in French between 1830–1842; the widely used condensed English translation titled The Positive Philosophy of Auguste Comte (translated and condensed by Harriet Martineau) appeared in 1853.
4. Which school of thought regarding the scope of sociology is comparatively narrower?
(A) Formalistic school
(B) Synthetic school
(C) Same in case of both of the above
(D) None of the above
(A) Formalistic school
Explanation: The formalistic school treats sociology with a narrower focus—emphasizing formal aspects and structures—whereas the synthetic school advocates a broader, integrative scope combining multiple approaches.
5. Who divided the sociological field of inquiry as 'social morphology', 'social physiology' and 'general sociology'?
(A) Max Weber
(B) Auguste Comte
(C) Emile Durkheim
(D) None of them
(B) Auguste Comte
Explanation: Auguste Comte, the founder of positivism and an early architect of sociology, classified sociology into social statics (morphology), social dynamics (physiology), and general sociology as part of his systematic scheme.
6. Which of the following is the significance of sociology?
(A) It throws light on social nature of man
(B) It helps us to understand various types of society
(C) It helps in solving social problems
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Sociology helps us to understand human social behavior, the functioning of societies, and provides tools for addressing social issues and problems effectively.
7. 'A group organized for the pursuit of an interest or group of interests in common' is called
(A) Community
(B) Family
(C) Association
(D) All of the above
(C) Association
Explanation: An association is a formally organized group of people who come together to achieve common objectives or interests, unlike community or family which are more natural forms of groups.
8. When a mother plays the role of a nurse at the time of her child’s sickness it can be viewed as
(A) Status without a role
(B) Role without a status
(C) Status with role
(D) None of the above
(C) Status with role
Explanation: A mother has the status of a parent, and performing caregiving or nursing reflects the role associated with that status. Status and role are interrelated concepts in sociology.
9. Which of the following is not a feature of culture?
(A) It is shared
(B) It is continuous and cumulative
(C) It is an inborn tendency
(D) It is dynamic
(C) It is an inborn tendency
Explanation: Culture is learned, shared, and transmitted through socialization. It is not inborn or instinctive but acquired through interaction within society.
10. Which stage of socialization is marked by Freud as the stage of 'primary identification'?
(A) Oral stage
(B) Anal stage
(C) Oedipal stage
(D) None of the above
(C) Oedipal stage
Explanation: According to Freud, the Oedipal stage is when the child develops primary identification with the parent of the same sex, forming the basis of the superego and internalizing social norms.
11. The example of 'territorial group' as classified by Park and Burgess is
(A) Community
(B) Class
(C) Caste
(D) All of the above
(A) Community
Explanation: Park and Burgess classified groups based on territory and function. A community is a territorial group where people share a common locality and social life.
12. Which of the following groups is the chief moulder of human personality?
(A) Out group
(B) Primary group
(C) Reference group
(D) None of the above
(B) Primary group
Explanation: Primary groups, such as family and close peer groups, play a crucial role in shaping personality and behavior due to intimate and face-to-face interaction.
13. 'Group conceptions of the relative desirability of things' is called
(A) Norms
(B) Values
(C) Consensus
(D) None of the above
(B) Values
Explanation: Values are shared ideas or standards about what is considered desirable or important in a society. They guide norms and social behavior.
14. The deviance that leads to rejection of both values and norms is called
(A) Innovation
(B) Ritualism
(C) Retreatism
(D) None of the above
(C) Retreatism
Explanation: According to Merton’s strain theory, retreatism occurs when individuals reject both cultural goals and institutionalized means, often withdrawing from society.
15. The characteristic that may serve to distinguish ethnic groups is
(A) Language
(B) History or ancestry
(C) Styles of dress
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Ethnic groups are often distinguished by shared cultural traits such as language, ancestry, customs, dress, and historical experiences.
16. Which of the following concepts is socially constructed?
(A) Sex
(B) Gender
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
(B) Gender
Explanation: Gender is socially constructed through cultural expectations, roles, and norms, whereas sex is biologically determined.
17. A person can not be a member of
(A) Secondary group
(B) Organized group
(C) Voluntary group
(D) Reference group
(D) Reference group
Explanation: A reference group is one that an individual uses for self-evaluation and comparison of attitudes, values, and behaviors, but one may not be a member of it.
18. Socialization that contributes in "stripping away of learned patterns and substitution of new ones for them" is known as
(A) Primary socialization
(B) Re-socialization
(C) Anticipatory socialization
(D) Developmental socialization
(B) Re-socialization
Explanation: Re-socialization involves unlearning old behaviors and norms and adopting new ones, often occurring in institutions like the military, prisons, or rehabilitation centers.
19. When the technological development is much faster than the changes in the value system, then it results into
(A) Cultural lag
(B) Cultural shock
(C) Social development
(D) Social conflict
(A) Cultural lag
Explanation: Cultural lag occurs when material culture (technology) changes rapidly while non-material culture (values, norms) takes time to adjust.
20. Which of the following can be a basis of achieved status?
(A) Sex
(B) Kinship
(C) Occupation
(D) All of the above
(C) Occupation
Explanation: Achieved status is earned through individual effort and ability, such as through education, occupation, or skill — unlike ascribed statuses like sex or kinship.
21. Institution refers to
(A) A group of people
(B) Membership of people
(C) Organized way of doing things
(D) All of the above
(C) Organized way of doing things
Explanation: An institution is a structured and organized system of social relationships that governs a set of behaviors or activities, such as family, education, or religion.
22. The process by which society brings its members into conformity with the accepted standards of behaviour is called
(A) Social process
(B) Social control
(C) Social change
(D) All of the above
(B) Social control
Explanation: Social control refers to the mechanisms—formal and informal—used by society to regulate individual and group behavior to maintain social order.
23. Example of informal means of social control is
(A) Law
(B) Military force
(C) Police force
(D) Morality
(D) Morality
Explanation: Informal means of social control include customs, traditions, morals, and public opinion, which influence behavior without legal enforcement.
24. 'Negative mores' of society is known as
(A) Taboo
(B) Sanction
(C) Deviance
(D) All of the above
(A) Taboo
Explanation: A taboo is a strong social prohibition against certain actions or behaviors, representing negative mores that society strictly forbids.
25. Which of the following factors may lead to social change?
(A) Social conflict
(B) Revolution
(C) Cultural change
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Social change can result from various factors such as conflict, revolution, and cultural transformations, which influence structures and institutions over time.
26. Who among the following is not a proponent of 'cyclical theory' of social change?
(A) Spengler
(B) Toynbee
(C) Sorokin
(D) Comte
(D) Comte
Explanation: Comte proposed the law of three stages, a linear theory of change, unlike Spengler, Toynbee, and Sorokin who are associated with cyclical theories.
27. Durkheim identified the cause of social evolution as a society’s increasing
(A) Differentiation
(B) Moral density
(C) Formal control
(D) All of the above
(B) Moral density
Explanation: Durkheim saw the increase in moral density — interactions among individuals — as the key factor leading to social evolution and division of labour.
28. For Durkheim the aspect of human experiences that are set apart and forbidden is termed as
(A) Profane
(B) Sacred
(C) Belief
(D) All of the above
(B) Sacred
Explanation: Durkheim distinguished between the sacred (set apart and revered) and the profane (everyday, ordinary).
29. Primitive religion based on 'a belief in the spirit of dead' is called
(A) Feticism
(B) Animism
(C) Totemism
(D) None of the above
(B) Animism
Explanation: Animism refers to the belief that spirits inhabit natural objects or the souls of the dead continue to influence the living.
30. Social stratification is
(A) Hierarchical division of society
(B) Division of society into permanent groups
(C) Universal
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Social stratification is a universal and structured system of hierarchical ranking and grouping of individuals in society.
31. Social mobility is more easier in
(A) Caste society
(B) Closed society
(C) Open society
(D) None of the above
(C) Open society
Explanation: Open societies allow movement between strata or classes based on achievement, unlike caste or closed systems.
32. Which of the following systems of stratification is believed to have a divine origin?
(A) Slavery
(B) Estate
(C) Caste
(D) Class
(C) Caste
Explanation: The caste system is considered to have divine sanction in Hindu scriptures, unlike other systems of stratification.
33. Which of the following is not a feature of class system?
(A) Achieved status
(B) Endogamy
(C) Open system
(D) Class consciousness
(B) Endogamy
Explanation: Endogamy is a characteristic of the caste system, not the class system, which is more open and based on achieved status.
34. According to Comte, 'Industrial Society' developed during
(A) Theological stage
(B) Metaphysical stage
(C) Positive stage
(D) None of the above
(C) Positive stage
Explanation: Comte’s positive stage is characterized by scientific reasoning, industrialization, and progress.
35. Which subject comes at the base of the hierarchy of sciences developed by Comte?
(A) Biology
(B) Sociology
(C) Mathematics
(D) None of the above
(C) Mathematics
Explanation: Comte placed mathematics at the foundation of his hierarchy of sciences, as the most general and abstract discipline.
36. For Comte, 'Consensus Universalis' is the basic fact of
(A) Social order
(B) Social progress
(C) Social dynamics
(D) None of the above
(A) Social order
Explanation: Consensus Universalis refers to the fundamental social agreement or harmony that sustains social order.
37. The new positive society which will be an organic, hierarchic society based on natural talents of individuals is termed by Comte as
(A) Bureaucracy
(B) Sociocracy
(C) Democracy
(D) Autocracy
(B) Sociocracy
Explanation: Comte envisioned a sociocracy — a society organized scientifically and hierarchically on the basis of natural abilities.
38. In Spencerian theory, society's advance from simple to complex includes
(A) Increasing differentiation
(B) Decreasing differentiation
(C) Increasing homogeneity
(D) None of the above
(A) Increasing differentiation
Explanation: :contentReference[oaicite:0]{index=0} saw social evolution as a movement from homogeneity to heterogeneity and increasing specialization.
39. Which of the following is not a basic law of evolution as stated by Spencer?
(A) Law of persistence of force
(B) Law of indestructibility of matter
(C) Law of continuity of motion
(D) Law of relationship between matters
(D) Law of relationship between matters
Explanation: The three basic laws stated by Spencer are the persistence of force, indestructibility of matter, and continuity of motion.
40. Change from compulsory to voluntary cooperation denotes the transformation from
(A) Industrial to military society
(B) Military to industrial society
(C) Complex to simple society
(D) All of the above
(B) Military to industrial society
Explanation: Spencer described this transformation as a key feature of social evolution from coercive to voluntary cooperation.
41. "A class of people who have highest indices in their branch of activity" is termed by Pareto as
(A) Elite
(B) Foxes
(C) Lions
(D) None of the above
(A) Elite
Explanation: Pareto defined "elite" as those who occupy the highest positions in social and political life due to their superior abilities.
42. According to Pareto, which of the following is not a characteristic of foxes?
(A) Adapt flexibility to environment
(B) Capable of innovation
(C) Prefer idealistic goals
(D) Lack fidelity to principles
(C) Prefer idealistic goals
Explanation: Foxes are characterized by cunning, adaptability, and pragmatism, not idealism, which is more typical of lions in Pareto's typology.
43. How many categories of derivations are there in Pareto's system?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(C) Five
Explanation: Pareto identified five categories of derivations to classify residuals or non-logical actions in society.
44. According to Durkheim, social facts are
(A) External to the individual
(B) Coercive of actors
(C) Sui-generis
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Social facts are external to the individual, coercive, and exist independently, making them sui-generis, according to Durkheim.
45. Solidarity characterized by specialization, division of labour, and individualism is called
(A) Solidarity of resemblance
(B) Mechanical solidarity
(C) Organic solidarity
(D) None of the above
(C) Organic solidarity
Explanation: Organic solidarity arises in complex societies with specialized roles and interdependence among individuals.
46. The social factor that influences division of labour is
(A) Volume of population
(B) Material density of population
(C) Moral density of population
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Durkheim identified population volume, material density, and moral density as factors that shape the division of labour.
47. Suicide that occurs due to lack of integration with the larger social unit is called
(A) Egoistic suicide
(B) Altruistic suicide
(C) Anomic suicide
(D) None of the above
(A) Egoistic suicide
Explanation: Egoistic suicide results from weak social integration, where individuals feel disconnected from society.
48. The common place, utilitarian and mundane aspects of life is termed by Durkheim as
(A) Sacred
(B) Profane
(C) Totem
(D) None of the above
(B) Profane
Explanation: Profane refers to the everyday, ordinary, and utilitarian aspects of life, contrasted with the sacred.
49. The Elementary Forms of Religious Life is written by
(A) Marx
(B) Weber
(C) Durkheim
(D) None of them
(C) Durkheim
Explanation: Durkheim authored "The Elementary Forms of Religious Life," analyzing the social function of religion.
50. Which of the following is not a type of alienation as explained by Marx?
(A) Alienation from productive activity
(B) Alienation from capitalist
(C) Alienation from the product
(D) Alienation from the fellow worker
(B) Alienation from capitalist
Explanation: Marx described alienation from the product, labor activity, fellow workers, and self, but not from the capitalist personally.
51. For Marx the economic system of means of production and relation of production comes under
(A) Base
(B) Superstructure
(C) Dialectic
(D) None of the above
(A) Base
Explanation: Marx identified the economic base (means and relations of production) as the foundation that shapes the superstructure of society.
52. For Marx poverty is the result of
(A) Scarcity
(B) Exploitation
(C) Inability to work
(D) All of the above
(B) Exploitation
Explanation: Marx argued that poverty results primarily from the exploitation of the working class under capitalism, not mere scarcity or inability to work.
53. According to Marx revolution will lead to
(A) Dictatorship of the proletariat
(B) Dictatorship of the bourgeoisie
(C) Negotiation between bourgeoisie and proletariat
(D) All of the above
(A) Dictatorship of the proletariat
Explanation: Marx believed that revolution would result in the dictatorship of the proletariat as a transitional phase toward a classless society.
54. In capitalist society the State is used as an instrument of economic exploitation and consolidation of self-interest of the
(A) Proletariat
(B) Bourgeoisie
(C) Lumpen proletariat
(D) All of the above
(B) Bourgeoisie
Explanation: Marx viewed the state as serving the economic interests of the bourgeoisie, facilitating exploitation and maintaining class dominance.
55. Weberian methodology includes
(A) Sympathetic introspection
(B) Ideal type
(C) Verstehen
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Weber’s methodology combines sympathetic understanding (verstehen), use of ideal types, and introspection for analyzing social action.
56. Weber argued that for the development of capitalism the Indian doctrine Karma is
(A) Favourable
(B) Not favourable
(C) Partially favourable
(D) None of the above
(B) Not favourable
Explanation: Weber argued that the doctrine of Karma encouraged resignation rather than entrepreneurial activity, making it less favorable for capitalist development.
57. Weberian dimensions of stratification 'class, status and power' corresponds three orders of society accordingly
(A) Economic, social, political
(B) Social, religious, occupational
(C) Economic, religious, educational
(D) Political, occupational, social
(A) Economic, social, political
Explanation: Weber’s tripartite stratification includes class (economic), status (social), and power (political).
58. Which of the following is not a feature of bureaucracy?
(A) Fixed and official jurisdictional areas
(B) Principle of office hierarchy
(C) Division of labour based on personal preference of the authority
(D) A system of written documents
(C) Division of labour based on personal preference of the authority
Explanation: Bureaucracy, as per Weber, has division of labor based on formal rules, not personal preferences.
59. Action which is determined by actors habitual and customary ways of behaving is termed by Weber as
(A) Affective action
(B) Traditional action
(C) Rational action
(D) All of the above
(B) Traditional action
Explanation: Traditional action is based on habit, custom, or long-established practices rather than rational calculation or emotion.
60. Authority claimed on the basis of extraordinary virtuosity, exemplary character or special power is called
(A) Traditional authority
(B) Rational and legal authority
(C) Charismatic authority
(D) None of the above
(C) Charismatic authority
Explanation: Charismatic authority rests on personal qualities of a leader that inspire devotion and obedience.
61. Which of the following is a function of theory?
(A) Theory predicts facts
(B) Theory establishes a linkage between specific empirical findings and general sociological orientations
(C) Theory suggests potential problems
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Theory serves multiple functions: predicting facts, linking empirical data to general frameworks, and highlighting potential issues for investigation.
62. Indicate the incorrect statement about macro theory :
(A) It deals with society as a whole
(B) It deals with subsystems that make up the society
(C) It is broader in scope and encompasses an extended range of laws
(D) None of the above
(B) It deals with subsystems that make up the society
Explanation: Macro theory focuses on the society as a whole, while analyzing subsystems pertains more to micro-level theory.
63. Functionalism considers
(A) Primacy of elements over system
(B) There is no interrelation between elements of the system
(C) Principle of homeostasis and concept of dynamic equilibrium
(D) Dominant condition of society is based on coercion and dissensus
(C) Principle of homeostasis and concept of dynamic equilibrium
Explanation: Functionalism emphasizes interrelations among social elements and how they maintain societal stability and equilibrium.
64. "All standardized social or cultural forms have positive function" is called the postulate of
(A) Functional unity
(B) Universal functionalism
(C) Functional indispensability
(D) None of the above
(B) Universal functionalism
Explanation: Universal functionalism postulates that all social or cultural forms serve a positive function for society.
65. Which of the following concepts was introduced by Merton?
(A) Dysfunction
(B) Non-function
(C) Manifest function
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Merton introduced the concepts of manifest function, latent function, dysfunction, and non-function in social systems.
66. 'War' and 'cultural invasion' comes under
(A) Endogenous conflict
(B) Exogenous conflict
(C) Latent conflict
(D) None of the above
(B) Exogenous conflict
Explanation: Exogenous conflict arises due to factors outside the social system, like war or cultural invasion.
67. Coser's conflict theory asserts that frequent and less intense conflict can
(A) Increase the level of innovation and creativity of system units
(B) Release hostilities before they polarize system units
(C) Increase awareness of realistic issues
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Coser emphasized that moderate conflict can be functional for social systems by promoting innovation, resolving tensions, and raising awareness of problems.
68. Which of the following is not a proposition of conflict theory?
(A) Society is an equilibrium system
(B) Seeds of conflict are embedded in every social structure
(C) Every element of a society contributes to its change
(D) None of the above
(A) Society is an equilibrium system
Explanation: Conflict theory emphasizes tension and change rather than equilibrium in social systems.
69. Dahrendorf's conflict theory is based on
(A) Relations of authority
(B) Class, status and power
(C) Ownership of economic resources
(D) All of the above
(A) Relations of authority
Explanation: Dahrendorf focused on authority relations within organizations and social structures as the source of conflict.
70. Who among the following is not a conflict theorist?
(A) Simmel
(B) Collins
(C) Malinowski
(D) None of them
(C) Malinowski
Explanation: Malinowski is known for functionalist anthropology, not conflict theory.
71. Who considered conflict as a 'safety valve'?
(A) Coser
(B) Mills
(C) Dahrendorf
(D) Marx
(A) Coser
Explanation: Lewis Coser viewed conflict as a mechanism that can relieve social tensions before they become disruptive.
72. According to Mead, when the child is able to understand and use the conventional gestures and can employ them to take the role of others then
(A) Mind evolves
(B) Self evolves
(C) Society evolves
(D) All of the above
(B) Self evolves
Explanation: Mead emphasized that the development of the self arises from understanding and interacting with social gestures and roles.
73. The final stage of development of self occurs when an individual can
(A) Develop self image
(B) Develop self conception
(C) Take the role of generalized others
(D) All of the above
(C) Take the role of generalized others
Explanation: The generalized other represents the attitudes and expectations of the larger society, allowing full development of self.
74. Which of the following is a 'significant symbol' for Mead?
(A) Consciousness
(B) Language
(C) Intelligence
(D) None of the above
(B) Language
Explanation: Mead considered language the primary symbol through which humans interact and develop self-consciousness.
75. Who among the following functionalists asserts that "alternative structures can exist to fulfil basically the same requisites in both similar and diverse systems"?
(A) Parsons
(B) Merton
(C) Malinowski
(D) None of them
(B) Merton
Explanation: Merton highlighted functional alternatives, showing that different structures can fulfill similar societal functions.
76. Research can contribute in
(A) Policy making
(B) Problem solving
(C) Market analysis
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Research provides evidence and insights applicable to policies, problem solving, and market decisions.
77. Fundamental research is concerned with
(A) Finding solution for a problem
(B) Historical sources to study the past
(C) Generalization and formulation of a theory
(D) Decision-oriented research
(C) Generalization and formulation of a theory
Explanation: Fundamental research focuses on building theories and understanding general principles, not immediate problem-solving.
78. Research
(A) Inculcates scientific thinking
(B) Promotes logical habits of thinking
(C) Promotes inductive thinking
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Research encourages systematic, logical, and inductive approaches in knowledge creation.
79. In social research data collection is conducted
(A) After preparing research design
(B) Before literature survey
(C) After hypothesis testing
(D) All of the above
(A) After preparing research design
Explanation: Data collection follows a structured research design to ensure validity and reliability.
80. In a research report the questionnaire should be attached at the
(A) Preliminary pages
(B) Main text
(C) End matter
(D) Any convenient place
(C) End matter
Explanation: Questionnaires are typically attached at the end of a report for reference without disrupting the main text.
81. Bibliography should be arranged
(A) Alphabetically
(B) Year-wise
(C) According to their application in the report
(D) According to their importance
(A) Alphabetically
Explanation: Bibliography is arranged alphabetically by the author's last name to allow easy reference and consistency.
82. The census in India comes under
(A) Exploratory research
(B) Descriptive research
(C) Explanatory research
(D) Analytical research
(B) Descriptive research
Explanation: Census data provides a description of population characteristics without analyzing causal relationships.
83. Which of the following is not a criterion of a good hypothesis?
(A) Empirically testable
(B) Specific and precise
(C) Contradictory to the approved relevant statement
(D) None of the above
(C) Contradictory to the approved relevant statement
Explanation: A good hypothesis should be consistent with existing knowledge, specific, and testable.
84. Indicate the source of a hypothesis
(A) Past research
(B) Folk wisdom
(C) Personal experience
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Hypotheses can arise from multiple sources including prior studies, experiential knowledge, and traditional wisdom.
85. Hypothesis can help in
(A) Testing theories
(B) Suggesting theories
(C) Describing social phenomena
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Hypotheses provide a framework for testing, suggesting, and describing theoretical and empirical aspects of social phenomena.
86. 'Planning a strategy of conducting research' is called
(A) Hypothesis
(B) Research design
(C) Research proposal
(D) Sample design
(B) Research design
Explanation: Research design outlines the strategy and methods for conducting research systematically and efficiently.
87. In case of qualitative research
(A) Sample is always representative
(B) Research design is not flexible
(C) Sampling can be planned during data collection
(D) Size of the sample must be very big
(C) Sampling can be planned during data collection
Explanation: Qualitative research allows flexible sampling, often decided during data collection to capture richness of information.
88. The research design for comparison of two periods, present and past, is known as
(A) Explanatory design
(B) Ex-post-facto design
(C) One-cell design
(D) None of the above
(B) Ex-post-facto design
Explanation: Ex-post-facto research involves analyzing existing events or conditions in the past and comparing them with the present.
89. The importance of survey research design depends upon
(A) Number of people chosen for the study
(B) Representativeness of the sample
(C) Reliability of the information given by the respondent
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Survey research is effective when the sample is representative, sufficient in size, and provides reliable information.
90. Research design can contribute in
(A) Carrying research in right direction
(B) Minimising wastage of time and money
(C) Achieving optimum reliability
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: A proper research design ensures systematic research, efficient resource usage, and reliable outcomes.
91. Sampling error means
(A) Errors that arise on account of sampling
(B) Errors that occur during the process of collecting actual information
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
(A) Errors that arise on account of sampling
Explanation: Sampling error occurs due to the selection of a sample instead of studying the whole population, leading to potential discrepancies.
92. Sample size can be smaller when
(A) Universe is heterogeneous
(B) Standard of accuracy is to be kept high
(C) Items need to be intensively and continuously studied
(D) All of the above
(C) Items need to be intensively and continuously studied
Explanation: Smaller samples can be used when in-depth, intensive study of selected items is required, even if the universe is large.
93. Tippet's table is used in
(A) Simple random sampling
(B) Interval sampling
(C) Purposive sampling
(D) Quota sampling
(A) Simple random sampling
Explanation: Tippet's table provides random numbers that help in selecting samples for simple random sampling.
94. 'Convenience sampling' is also known as
(A) Judgemental sampling
(B) Accidental sampling
(C) Multi-stage sampling
(D) None of the above
(B) Accidental sampling
Explanation: Convenience or accidental sampling selects participants who are readily available, without randomization.
95. In case of sampling for quantitative research
(A) Sample size is fixed
(B) Sample size is statistically determined
(C) Sample size is relatively large
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Quantitative research typically requires a predetermined, statistically valid sample that is sufficiently large for analysis.
96. Interview schedule should be
(A) Distributed to the respondents
(B) Physically very attractive
(C) Filled-in by the interviewer
(D) All of the above
(C) Filled-in by the interviewer
Explanation: An interview schedule is meant to be completed by the interviewer during the interview, not by the respondents themselves.
97. In a questionnaire the questions that are used to guard the truthfulness of the respondents is called
(A) Primary questions
(B) Secondary questions
(C) Padding questions
(D) Probing questions
(D) Probing questions
Explanation: Probing questions are designed to ensure accurate, truthful responses and to clarify any ambiguous answers.
98. Indicate the true feature of open-ended question
(A) It helps to get insight in respondents understanding
(B) Easy classification and coding of response
(C) Statistical analysis is easier
(D) All of the above
(A) It helps to get insight in respondents understanding
Explanation: Open-ended questions allow respondents to express their thoughts freely, providing qualitative insight, but make classification and statistical analysis more difficult.
99. The study conducted for understanding the suitability of questionnaire is called
(A) Survey study
(B) Field study
(C) Pilot study
(D) All of the above
(C) Pilot study
Explanation: A pilot study is a small-scale preliminary study conducted to test the suitability, clarity, and reliability of the research instrument.
100. Which of the following is not a quality of an interviewer?
(A) Adaptability
(B) Honesty
(C) Inquisitive mind
(D) Extreme emotional involvement with the respondents
(D) Extreme emotional involvement with the respondents
Explanation: Interviewers should remain objective and professional; extreme emotional involvement may bias the data collection.
101. Structured interview
(A) Is more flexible
(B) Is mostly used in qualitative research
(C) Allows little freedom to make changes in any of its elements
(D) All of the above
(C) Allows little freedom to make changes in any of its elements
Explanation: A structured interview follows a predetermined set of questions with minimal flexibility, ensuring consistency across respondents.
102. In case of participant observation the observer
(A) May lose objectivity
(B) May influence the events
(C) Interprets events subjectively
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Participant observation involves the observer actively engaging with subjects, which may influence events and interpretations, and challenge objectivity.
103. When subjects are unaware that they are being observed this type of observation is known as
(A) Open observation
(B) Structured observation
(C) Covert observation
(D) None of the above
(C) Covert observation
Explanation: Covert observation is when participants are unaware of being observed, helping reduce bias in their behavior.
104. Indicate the incorrect statement about case study method
(A) It is qualitative method
(B) It presents the holistic account of the case
(C) It employs several methods of data collection
(D) It studies multiple cases at a time
(D) It studies multiple cases at a time
Explanation: A case study typically focuses on a single case in depth, rather than multiple cases simultaneously.
105. The destruction of old handicraft industry without the growth of modern industry during British rule can be termed as
(A) Urbanization
(B) Industrialization
(C) De-industrialization
(D) None of the above
(C) De-industrialization
Explanation: De-industrialization refers to the decline of traditional industries without sufficient replacement by modern industries, a phenomenon seen during British rule in India.
106. In pre-British India, the owner of the village land was
(A) Zamindars
(B) Village community
(C) Peasants
(D) Moneylenders
(B) Village community
Explanation: Before British rule, villages were collectively managed, and land ownership was typically vested in the village community rather than individuals.
107. Which among the following is not a consequence of commercialization of agriculture during British rule?
(A) Agriculturists had to compete with international rivals
(B) Agriculturists became dependent on middlemen for selling of their product
(C) It leads to insufficient differentiation of agriculture and industry
(D) None of the above
(C) It leads to insufficient differentiation of agriculture and industry
Explanation: Commercialization encouraged specialization and differentiation rather than insufficient differentiation between agriculture and industry.
108. Which group of people did not exist during pre-British Indian society?
(A) Absentee landlord
(B) Non-cultivating landlord
(C) Agricultural labourers
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Pre-British Indian society largely consisted of self-sufficient peasant communities; absentee landlords and non-cultivating landlords were introduced during colonial rule.
109. B. R. Ambedkar's work comes under the category of
(A) Historical perspective
(B) Subaltern perspective
(C) Dialectical perspective
(D) Structural-functional perspective
(B) Subaltern perspective
Explanation: Ambedkar focused on the marginalized and oppressed groups, making his work fall under the subaltern perspective.
110. Indicate the incorrect statement about Indological perspective
(A) It assumes that Indian society and culture are unique
(B) It employs historical and comparative method of analysis
(C) It understands the society from its civilization
(D) It assumes that contextual specificity of India could be grasped through texts
(D) It assumes that contextual specificity of India could be grasped through texts
Explanation: Indological perspective relies on historical and cultural methods rather than solely textual analysis to understand Indian society.
111. A. R. Desai is not the author of
(A) Personality and the Social Sciences
(B) Social Background of Indian Nationalism
(C) Rural India in Transition
(D) Peasant Struggles in India
(A) Personality and the Social Sciences
Explanation: A. R. Desai authored works focusing on Indian society, nationalism, and peasant movements, but not "Personality and the Social Sciences."
112. Who among the following introduced zamindari system through Permanent Settlement Act?
(A) Lord Cornwallis
(B) Thomas Munro
(C) Alexander Read
(D) None of them
(A) Lord Cornwallis
Explanation: Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement Act in 1793, establishing the zamindari system in Bengal.
113. Who was the founder of 'Indian Sociological Society'?
(A) A. R. Desai
(B) M. N. Srinivas
(C) G. S. Ghurye
(D) S. C. Dube
(C) G. S. Ghurye
Explanation: G. S. Ghurye, known as the father of Indian sociology, founded the Indian Sociological Society in 1951.
114. The concept of 'Marginal Joint Family' was introduced by
(A) I. P. Desai
(B) A. R. Desai
(C) Padia
(D) None of them
(B) A. R. Desai
Explanation: A. R. Desai introduced the concept of Marginal Joint Family to describe families losing traditional authority over members.
115. "The family in which the conventional mores lose their significance and the authority of the family over its members is minimum" is called
(A) Trustee
(B) Domestic
(C) Atomistic
(D) None of the above
(C) Atomistic
Explanation: An atomistic family is one in which traditional norms and parental authority are weak, giving more independence to individual members.
116. Which of the following is an endogamous group?
(A) Religion
(B) Gotra
(C) Pinda
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: All these groups—religion, gotra, and pinda—typically follow rules of endogamy, meaning marriage occurs within the group.
117. "Marriage by capture without obtaining the consent of the girl or her parents" is also known as
(A) Gandharva
(B) Raksasa
(C) Brahma
(D) Daiva
(B) Raksasa
Explanation: Raksasa marriage involves forcibly taking a woman without consent, unlike Gandharva or Brahma types.
118. Cause of polyandry can be
(A) Scarcity of women
(B) Desire to keep property intact
(C) Heavy bride price
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Polyandry, often fraternal, arises from social and economic reasons such as shortage of women, property preservation, and bride price.
119. The ties between two brothers of same parents can come under
(A) Primary affinal kin
(B) Primary consanguineous kin
(C) Secondary kin
(D) None of the above
(B) Primary consanguineous kin
Explanation: Brothers share blood relation, hence they are primary consanguineous kin.
120. "Among the Aruntas if the mother-in-law enters the hut of her son-in-law she would be ex-communicated" - such kinship rule is known as
(A) Joking relationship
(B) Rule of avoidance
(C) Teknonymy
(D) Couvade
(B) Rule of avoidance
Explanation: Rule of avoidance refers to certain kinship restrictions where interaction between specified relatives is limited to avoid conflict or taboo.
121. In kinship terminology the term 'uncle' is a
(A) Classificatory term
(B) Descriptive term
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
(A) Classificatory term
Explanation: In kinship studies, "uncle" is a classificatory term because it groups several relatives (father’s brother, mother’s brother) under one category rather than describing a single specific relationship.
122. Indicate the incorrect statement about Sanskritization
(A) Lower castes imitate the local dominant caste
(B) Unit of mobility is individual and not the group or family
(C) It is an intergenerational mobility
(D) All of the above
(B) Unit of mobility is individual and not the group or family
Explanation: Sanskritization usually involves a group or family imitating higher castes, not just individuals, and it is intergenerational in nature.
123. The term 'Brahmanization' is
(A) Narrower than the term Sanskritization
(B) Broader than Sanskritization
(C) Same as Sanskritization
(D) None of the above
(A) Narrower than the term Sanskritization
Explanation: Brahmanization specifically refers to the spread of Brahmanical values and practices, whereas Sanskritization is a broader process of social mobility by imitating higher castes.
124. Westernization implies
(A) Increased social mobility
(B) Humanitarian and egalitarian outlook
(C) Changes in technology, institutions and values
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Westernization in society brings changes in technology, institutions, values, and often leads to increased mobility and egalitarian ideas.
125. Which of the following is not a feature of modernization?
(A) Introduction of modern technology
(B) Spread of scientific orientation
(C) Building up open society
(D) Transition from achieved to ascribed status
(D) Transition from achieved to ascribed status
Explanation: Modernization emphasizes achieved status based on merit and ability, not ascribed status which is determined by birth.
126. From Indian perspective which of the following procedures ensures that no preference will be given to any particular religion by the State?
(A) Sanskritization
(B) Westernization
(C) Secularization
(D) All of the above
(C) Secularization
Explanation: Secularization ensures the State remains neutral toward all religions and treats all equally.
127. Which of the following is introduced as Land Reform measure in India?
(A) Abolition of zamindari system
(B) Land ceiling
(C) Changes in land revenue system
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Land reforms in India included abolishing zamindari, setting land ceilings, and modifying revenue systems to redistribute land.
128. About tribal population which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) They possess small and uneconomic landholding
(B) Their literacy rate is very low
(C) Their occupational participation is more in secondary and tertiary sectors
(D) None of the above
(C) Their occupational participation is more in secondary and tertiary sectors
Explanation: Tribal populations are predominantly engaged in primary sector activities like agriculture, forestry, and hunting, not secondary or tertiary sectors.
129. Hereditary membership, endogamy, hierarchy and fixed occupation are the features of
(A) Tribe
(B) Caste
(C) Kinship
(D) Religion
(B) Caste
Explanation: These features are characteristic of caste systems in India, distinguishing them from tribes or kinship groups.
130. "Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Prevention of Atrocities Act" was passed in the year
(A) 1989
(B) 1979
(C) 1999
(D) None of the above
(A) 1989
Explanation: The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was enacted in 1989 to prevent atrocities and discrimination against Scheduled Castes and Tribes.
131. The concept of 'purity and pollution' is associated with
(A) Class
(B) Tribe
(C) Caste
(D) All of the above
(C) Caste
Explanation: Concepts of ritual purity and pollution are central to the caste system in traditional Indian society.
132. Rural society is characterized by
(A) Heterogeneity
(B) High density of population
(C) Less opportunities of social mobility
(D) All of the above
(C) Less opportunities of social mobility
Explanation: Rural society typically has low population density, less heterogeneity, and fewer opportunities for social mobility compared to urban areas.
133. Slums are
(A) Situated in urban areas
(B) Inhabited by people of lower class
(C) Thickly populated
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Slums are typically urban settlements that are densely populated and inhabited by economically disadvantaged groups.
134. National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was introduced in the year
(A) 1980
(B) 1970
(C) 1985
(D) None of the above
(A) 1980
Explanation: NREP was launched in 1980 to provide gainful employment in rural areas through public works.
135. "A condition in which an individual is not in a state of remunerative occupation despite his desire to do so" is called
(A) Underemployment
(B) Unemployment
(C) Poverty
(D) Deviance
(B) Unemployment
Explanation: Unemployment occurs when an individual is willing and able to work but cannot find suitable paid employment.
136. Which of the following does not come under the three principles of Dalit Movement as prescribed by B. R. Ambedkar?
(A) Education
(B) Agitation
(C) Organization
(D) Occupation
(D) Occupation
Explanation: Ambedkar emphasized education, agitation, and organization as key principles for the Dalit Movement; occupation was not a primary principle.
137. Full form of OBC is
(A) Other Backward Classes
(B) Other Backward Castes
(C) Over Backward Castes
(D) Over Backward Classes
(A) Other Backward Classes
Explanation: OBC stands for Other Backward Classes, a category identified in India for affirmative action in education and employment.
138. Rapid population growth can be a consequence of
(A) Poverty
(B) Illiteracy
(C) Socio-religious outlook
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Poverty, lack of education, and socio-religious factors can all contribute to higher fertility and rapid population growth.
139. "Antagonism practiced by one community against the people of other community and religion" can be termed as
(A) Terrorism
(B) Communalism
(C) Regionalism
(D) None of the above
(B) Communalism
Explanation: Communalism refers to hostility or discrimination between religious or ethnic communities.
140. Which of the following comes under anti-terrorism legislation?
(A) TADA
(B) POTA
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of the above
(C) Both A and B
Explanation: Both TADA (Terrorist and Disruptive Activities Act) and POTA (Prevention of Terrorism Act) are Indian anti-terrorism legislations.
141. Regionalism can be minimized by
(A) Doing away with regional imbalance
(B) Proper education
(C) Developed means of transport and communication
(D) All of the above
(D) All of the above
Explanation: Reducing regional disparities, improving education, and better connectivity help in minimizing regionalism.
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