Model Question Booklet for TDP (General)/TDP (Honours)
6th Semester Exam.
HUMAN RIGHTS
(Soft Study Course)
1. The phrase “Equal protection of law” in Indian Constitution is borrowed from
[A] Britain
[B] France
[C] U. S. A
[D] China
Answer is [C]
2. Which article is saying about equal pay for equal work without any discrimination?
[A] Article 39
[B] Article 49
[C] Article 59
[D] Article 69
Answer is [A]
3. Which of the following statements is correct? A welfare state envisages
[A] A fully egalitarian society
[B] State ownership of the means ofproduction
[C] A system which combines right to personal property with state intervention for social security and providing help to the needy and indigent
[D] Abolition of private property
Answer is [C]
4. The ground for distributive justice includes
[A] Merit and desert
[B] Desert and need
[C] Merit and need
[D] Merit, desert and need
Answer is [D]
5. Who among the following is the exponent of negative liberty?
[A] T. H. Green
[B] Isaiah Berlin
[C] Rousseau
[D] Marx
Answer is [B]
6. ‘The only purpose for which power can be rightfully exercised over any member of a civilized community against his will is to prevent harm to other’
[A] J. S. Mill
[B] T. H. Green
[C] Thomas Paine
[D] H. J. Laski
Answer is [A]
7. Who said- Ownership of property should be private but its use should be for common good
[A] Aristotle
[B] John Locke
[C] Mahatma Gandhi
[D] Proudhon
Answer is [A]
8. Who said ‘Property is theft’
[A] Aristotle
[B] John Locke
[C] Mahatma Gandhi
[D] Proudhon
Answer is [D]
9. When a person mixes his labour with things of nature, they become his property
[A] Aristotle
[B] John Locke
[C] Mahatma Gandhi
[D] Proudhon
Answer is [B]
10. Owner of property should consider himself to be its trustee
[A] Aristotle
[B] John Locke
[C] Mahatma Gandhi
[D] Proudhon
Answer is [C]
11. The most important function of the welfare state is the creation of conditions which ensure
[A] Fair elections
[B] Liberty
[C] Social justice
[D] Freedom of expression
Answer is [C]
12. “Rights properly so called are creatures of law.” This view is held by
[A] Aristotle
[B] John Locke
[C] Mahatma Gandhi
[D] Bentham
Answer is [D]
13. Which one of the following is NOT generally considered as a part of the right to equality?
[A] Equal protection under law
[B] Equality of opportunity for all
[C] Equality of satisfaction of basic needs of all
[D] Equality of treatment in all circumstances
Answer is [C]
14. Who among the following based his liberalism on the primacy of rights
[A] J. S. Mill
[B] Jeremy Bentham
[C] T. H. Green
[D] Ronald Dworkin
Answer is [A]
15. When justice emanates from the decisions of the courts interpreting the law and awarding punishment to the wrong doer, it is called
[A] Distributive justice
[B] Social justice
[C] Corrective justice
[D] Political justice
Answer is [C]
16. ‘Natural and inherent right of every citizen’ is the attributive of which theory of rights?
[A] Natural
[B] Legal
[C] Ethical
[D] Group
Answer is [A]
17. ‘Necessary to ensure the development of human personality’ is the attributive of which theory of rights?
[A] Natural
[B] Legal
[C] Ethical
[D] Group
Answer is [C]
18. ‘Political rights granted by the law of the state’ is the attributive of which theory of rights?
[A] Natural
[B] Legal
[C] Ethical
[D] Group
Answer is [B]
19. Part of the life of the community is the attributive of which theory of rights?
[A] Natural
[B] Legal
[C] Ethical
[D] Group
Answer is [D]
20. Which is the first human rights declaration adopted by the United Nations?
[A] The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, a landmark document
[B] International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
[C] The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
[D] The Convention on the Rights of the Child
Answer is [A]
21. When was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted?
[A] 11 December 1948
[B] 10 December 1948
[C] 10 December 1949
[D] 1 December 1950
Answer is [B]
22. Where was the Universal Declaration of Human Rights adopted?
[A] At the Palais de Chaillot, in Paris, France
[B] New York, America
[C] Sidney, Australia
[D] Tokyo, Japan
Answer is [A]
23. How many articles does the Universal Declaration of Human Rights contain?
[A] 33
[B] 31
[C] 30
[D] 38
Answer is [C]
24. When is Human Rights Day observed?
[A] 10 December each year
[B] 11 December each year
[C] 14 December each year
[D] 1 December each year
Answer is [A]
25. What is the International Bill of Human Rights?
[A] The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, together with the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
[B] International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights only
[C] The Universal Declaration of Human Rights only
[D] The International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights only
Answer is [A]
26. Which United Nations council selects the members of the Commission on Human Rights and on what basis?
[A] The Economic and Social Council, according to political basis
[B] The Human Rights Committee on the basis of human rights performance
[C] The Office of the High Commissioner for Human Rights in Geneva according to economic power
[D] The Economic and Social Council, according to regional geographical distribution
Answer is [A]
27. How many human rights treaty bodies are there under UN?
[A] Five treaty bodies
[B] Six treaty bodies
[C] Four treaty bodies
[D] Seven treaty bodies
Answer is [B]
28. National Human Rights Commission is a ____
[A] Statutory body
[B] Constitutional body
[C] Multilateral institution
[D] Both [A] and [C]
Answer is [D]
29. Who is the current chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
[A] Justice A.S. Anand
[B] Justice H.L. Dattu
[C] Justice S. Rajendra Babu
[D] None of the above
Answer is [B]
30. Who can be appointed as the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
[A] Any sitting judge of the Supreme Court
[B] Any retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
[C] Any person appointed by the President
[D] Retired Chief Justice of any High Court
Answer is []
31. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the National Human Rights Commission?
[A] It was established in 1993
[B] In the cases of human rights violation, the Commission has no right to punish the culprit
[C] The Chairman and members of this Commission are appointed by the Supreme Court of India
[D] The Commission sends its annual report to the Central Government and State Government
Answer is [C]
32. What is tenure of the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
[A] 5 years or upto 62 years of age
[B] 5 years or upto 65 years of age
[C] 6 years or upto 65 years of age
[D] 5 years or upto 70 years of age
Answer is [D]
33. Who of the following is not included in the Committee constituted for the appointment of the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
[A] President
[B] Prime Minister
[C] Lok Sabha Speaker
[D] Leader of the main opposition party
Answer is [A]
34. Which of the following is not the function of the National Human Rights Commission?
[A] To interfere in the proceedings related to any human rights violation case pending in the court
[B] Protecting human rights of prisoners
[C] To provide Economic compensation to any human rights violation victim
[D] Promoting research in the field of human rights
Answer is [C]
35. Where is the headquarter of the National Human Rights Commission?
[A] Delhi
[B] Mumbai
[C] Ahmedabad
[D] Kolkata
Answer is [A]
36. Which of the following is considered as Right against exploitation in the Constitution of India?
[A] Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
[B] Abolition of untouchability
[C] Protection of interests of minorities
[D] Right to conscience
Answer is [A]
37. The State shall not make law which takes away or abridges the Fundamental Rights. Which one of the following is not considered as law for this purpose?
[A] Ordinance
[B] Bye-law
[C] Rule
[D] Constitutional Amendment
Answer is [D]
38. Which of the following is true about Fundamental Duties?
[A] Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction
[B] Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Indian Constitution since its adoption
[C] Fundamental Duties are applicable only to citizens of India
[D] Fundamental Duties were inserted by the 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India
Answer is [C]
39. Which one of the following shall not be considered an adequate ground for the issue of a proclamation of national emergency?
[A] War
[B] External aggression
[C] Armed rebellion
[D] Internal disturbance
Answer is [D]
40. Which of the following are grounds on which discrimination in admission into educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited?
[A] Religion, race, sex and place of birth
[B] Nationality and colour
[C] Age and nativity
[D] Religion and nationality
Answer is [A]
41. Which one of the following is not included as a Fundamental Duty in the Constitution of India?
[A] To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle
[B] To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of enquiry and reform
[C] To protect the minorities
[D] To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
Answer is [C]
42. Which one of the following directive principles was not originally provided for in the Constitution of India?
[A] Citizen’s Right to an adequate means of livelihood
[B] Free legal aid
[C] Free and compulsory education to children under 14 years of age
[D] Prohibition of the slaughter of cows and calves
Answer is [B]
43. Fundamental Rights guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by
[A] A proclamation of national emergency
[B] An Act passed by the Parliament
[C] An amendment of the Constitution
[D] The judicial decisions of the Supreme Court
Answer is [A]
44. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is guarantee only to the citizens of India?
[A] Equality before law and equal protection of the law
[B] Freedom of speech and expression
[C] Right to life and liberty
[D] Right to the freedom of religion
Answer is [D]
45. The Keshavananda Bharati case is related to
[A] Theory of parliamentary sovereignty
[B] Theory of basic structure of Indian Constitution
[C] Ruling that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended
[D] Ruling that compensation should be paid according to market value
Answer is [B]
46. The Golaknath case is related to
[A] Theory of parliamentary sovereignty
[B] Theory of basic structure of Indian Constitution
[C] Ruling that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended
[D] Ruling that compensation should be paid according to market value
Answer is [C]
47. The Bank Nationalization case is related to
[A] Theory of parliamentary sovereignty
[B] Theory of basic structure of Indian Constitution
[C] Ruling that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended
[D] Ruling that compensation should be paid according to market value
Answer is [D]
48. The 25th Amendment to the Constitution is related to
[A] Theory of parliamentary sovereignty
[B] Theory of basic structure of Indian Constitution
[C] Ruling that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended
[D] Ruling that compensation should be paid according to market value
Answer is [A]
49. The writ Habeas Corpus means
[A] A command to produce the body in person
[B] A command to a public authority to do its duty
[C] A proceeding to enquire into the legality of a claim of a person
[D] A directive to a lower court or judicial body not to exceed its limits
Answer is [A]
50. The writ Certiorari means
[A] A command to produce the body in person
[B] A command to a public authority to do its duty
[C] A proceeding to enquire into the legality of a claim of a person
[D] A directive to a lower court or judicial body not to exceed its limit
Answer is [D]
51. The writ Mandamus means
[A] A command to produce the body in person
[B] A command to a public authority to do its duty
[C] A proceeding to enquire into the legality of a claim of a person
[D] A directive to a lower court or judicial body not to exceed its limit
Answer is [B]
52. The writ Quo Warranto means
[A] A command to produce the body in person
[B] A command to a public authority to do its duty
[C] A proceeding to enquire into the legality of a claim of a person
[D] A directive to a lower court or judicial body not to exceed its limit
Answer is [C]
53. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
[A] Fundamental Right
[B] Constitutional Right
[C] Natural Right
[D] Legal Right
Answer is [B]
54. A writ issued by a court to some inferior authority to transfer the matter to it or to some other superior authority for its proper consideration is called
[A] Certiorari
[B] Mandamus
[C] Quo Warranto
[D] Legal Right
Answer is [A]
55. According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following rights cannot be taken away during emergency?
[A] Right to speak
[B] Right to freedom of movement
[C] Right to life
[D] Right to organize
Answer is [C]
56. Untouchability has been abolished by the constitution of India under
[A] Article 14
[B] Article 15
[C] Article 16
[D] Article 17
Answer is [D]
57. Which one of the following is NOT the objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
[A] To establish a welfare state
[B] To ensure socio economic justice
[C] To establish a religious state
[D] To establish a secular state
Answer is [C]
58. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes or SCs and STs?
[A] Article 15 (4)
[B] Article 24 (4)
[C] Article 20 (2)
[D] Article 16 (4)
Answer is [A]
59. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for safeguards under Preventive Detention?
[A] Article 15 (4)
[B] Article 24 (4)
[C] Article 20 (2)
[D] Article 16 (4)
Answer is [B]
60. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for Immunity from double punishment?
[A] Article 15 (4)
[B] Article 24 (4)
[C] Article 20 (2)
[D] Article 16 (4)
Answer is [C]
61. Which of the following statements about the right to freedom of religion is not correct?
[A] The state can regulate the economic, political, financial or other secular activities which may be associated with religious practices
[B] Restrictions can be imposed on the right to freedom of religion on grounds of maintenance of public order, morality or health
[C] Every religious denomination has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
[D] Funds appropriated by a religious denomination for promoting and maintaining a particular religion are taxable
Answer is [D]
62. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Right to Constitutional Remedy?
[A] Article 29
[B] Article 17
[C] Article 32
[D] Article 19
Answer is [C]
63. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of the interests of the minorities?
[A] Article 29
[B] Article 17
[C] Article 32
[D] Article 19
Answer is [A]
64. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the abolition of untouchability?
[A] Article 29
[B] Article 17
[C] Article 32
[D] Article 19
Answer is [B]
65. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the equality of opportunities in the matters of public employment?
[A] Article 29
[B] Article 17
[C] Article 16
[D] Article 19
Answer is [C]
66. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deal with citizenship in India?
[A] Articles 333 to 337
[B] Articles 17 to 20
[C] Articles 5 to 11
[D] Articles 1 to 4
Answer is [C]
67. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the
[A] Freedom of conscience
[B] Right to propagate religion
[C] Right of the minorities to establish and manage educational institutions
[D] Cultural and educational rights of the majority community
Answer is [C]
68. In Indian Constitution, the power to issue a writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is vested only in
[A] The Supreme Court
[B] The High Courts
[C] The Subordinate Courts
[D] The Supreme Court and the High Courts
Answer is [D]
69. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution has the state been empowered to protect and improve the environment, forests and wildlife?
[A] Article 43 A
[B] Article 48 A
[C] Article 44
[D] Article 46
Answer is [B]
70. Right to Equality is provided in the Indian Constitution under
[A] Article 25
[B] Article 14-18
[C] Article 32
[D] Article13
Answer is [B]
71. Right to Freedom is provided in the Indian Constitution under
[A] Article 25
[B] Article 14-18
[C] Article 32
[D] Article 19
Answer is [D]
72. Right to Freedom of Religion is provided in the Indian Constitution under
[A] Article 25
[B] Article 14-18
[C] Article 32
[D] Article 19
Answer is [A]
73. Right to Constitutional Remedies is provided in the Indian Constitution under
[A] Article 25
[B] Article 14-18
[C] Article 32
[D] Article 19
Answer is [C]
74. Under which one of the following provisions is reservation for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled tribes in every Panchayat made?
[A] Article 243 (Q) of the Constitution of India
[B] Article 243 (V) of the Constitution of India
[C] Article 243 (S) of the Constitution of India
[D] Article 243 (D) of the Constitution of India
Answer is [D]
75. Which of the following subject is included in the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India?
[A] Citizenship
[B] Inter-State rivers
[C] Trade unions
[D] All- India Services
Answer is [C]
76. The Directive Principle of State Policy ‘to secure just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief’ in the Constitution of India is provided under
[A] Article 42
[B] Article 40
[C] Article 47
[D] Article 50
Answer is [A]
77. The Directive Principle of State Policy ‘to organize village Panchayats as the basic unit of self government’ in the Constitution of India is provided under
[A] Article 42
[B] Article 40
[C] Article 47
[D] Article 50
Answer is [B]
78. The Directive Principle of State Policy ‘to secure the improvement of public health and the prohibition of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health’ in the Constitution of India is provided under
[A] Article 42
[B] Article 40
[C] Article 47
[D] Article 49
Answer is [C]
79. The Directive Principle of State Policy ‘to protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance’ in the Constitution of India is provided under
[A] Article 42
[B] Article 40
[C] Article 47
[D] Article 49
Answer is [D]
80. The Directive Principle of State Policy for ‘uniform civil code for citizens’ in the Constitution of India is provided under
[A] Article 42
[B] Article 40
[C] Article 47
[D] Article 49
Answer is [B]
81. “The personal is political” is a central slogan of the
[A] Neo-liberals
[B] Fascists
[C] Socialists
[D] Feminists
Answer is [D]
82. Which one of the following is not an NGO campaigning for Human Rights?
[A] Amnesty International
[B] Word Watch
[C] PUCL
[D] Oxfam
Answer is [B]
83. The well-known theorist of New Social Movement is
[A] Jurgen Habermas
[B] Karl Marx
[C] Hegel
[D] Althuser
Answer is [A]
84. Who tries to promote interests of their members and to influence politics?
[A] NGOs
[B] Pressure Groups
[C] Political Parties
[D] Elites
Answer is [B]
85. A group of eminent persons in their chosen field
[A] NGOs
[B] Pressure Groups
[C] Political Parties
[D] Elites
Answer is [D]
86. Who among the following are mainly concerned with the public issues/ problems?
[A] NGOs
[B] Pressure Groups
[C] Political Parties
[D] Elites
Answer is [A]
87. Who among the following is associated with Ecofeminism?
[A] Suman Sahi
[B] Shabana Asmi
[C] Vandana Shiva
[D] Arundhati Roy
Answer is [C]
88. Which one of the following social movements is driven more by identity concerns rather than the ideological concerns?
[A] Narmada Movement
[B] Farmers’ movement in Karnataka against the MNCs
[C] Sub-caste reservation movements among the Scheduled Castes
[D] Anti- liquor shop campaign in Andhra Pradesh
Answer is [C]
89. In the eyes of radical feminist, gender equality can be achieved through
[A] Gradual reform
[B] Getting more women elected in legislatures
[C] Challenging patriarchy
[D] Class struggle
Answer is [C]
90. Under which article of the UN Charter, has the term ‘Non-Governmental Organisation’ been used?
[A] Article 71
[B] Article 81
[C] Article 69
[D] Article 82
Answer is [B]
91. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of social movements?
[A] They favour protest that usually takes the form of direct action
[B] They are not concerned with who owns the means of production
[C] They believe only in the constitutional means of protest
[D] Their emergence is partly because of the failures of traditional political parties
Answer is [C]
92. In which of the following areas have reforms been recommended by the Justice Mallimath Committee?
[A] Criminal justice system
[B] Civil law
[C] Service conditions of judges
[D] Administrative law
Answer is [A]
93. The system of Public Interest Litigation in India has been introduced
[A] Through Constitutional Amendment
[B] By judicial initiative
[C] By political parties
[D] By a parliamentary Act
Answer is [B]
94. Who said that right to property is a natural right of the individual
[A] Proudhon
[B] John Locke
[C] H. J. Laski
[D] Karl Marx
Answer is [B]
95. One of the criticisms of the theory of Natural Rights is that it
[A] Places societal interests above individual interests
[B] Assumes that rights exist prior to society
[C] Believes that rights are the creations of the sovereign
[D] Puts too much emphasis on social recognition of rights
Answer is [B]
96. Who among the following thinkers combined ‘natural rights’ with physiological metaphor?
[A] Locke
[B] Spencer
[C] Green
[D] Burke
Answer is [B]
97. Which one of the following is NOT an apt description of negative liberty?
[A] It is the area within which a man can act unobstructed by others
[B] The individual has some assured positive sphere in which others cannot interfere
[C] A circle around every human being; a space entrenched around, a reserved territory
[D] It is the absence of humanly imposed impediments including lack of access to the means of life and the means of labour
Answer is [D]
98. According to John Rawls, A Theory of Justice
[A] Right is prior to good
[B] Good is prior to right
[C] Right is the same as good
[D] Good determines right
Answer is [B]
99. “Land, Bread, Peace” is related to
[A] Chinese Revolution
[B] French Revolution
[C] Russian Revolution
[D] Glorious Revolution
Answer is [C]
100. “Liberty, Equality, Fraternity” is related to
[A] Chinese Revolution
[B] French Revolution
[C] Russian Revolution
[D] Glorious Revolution
Answer is [B]
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