UGC NET Previous Year Paper with Answers Paper-I

January 2017

Note:  This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple-choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions. In case more than Fifty(50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated.                                                                     50 Q x 2 M = 100 Marks

1. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students with a view to explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in school programmes. This endeavour may be related to which type of research?

(1) Evaluation Research

(2) Fundamental Research

(3) Action Research

(4) Applied Research

Answer is [3]

2. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?

(1) Reflect, observe, plan, act

(2) Plan, act, observe, reflect

(3) Plan, reflect, observe, act

(4) Act, observe, plan, reflect

Answer is [2]

3. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below?

(1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.

(2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection..

(3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design, Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.

(4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools, Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence.

Answer is [3]

4. Below are given two sets – research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools (Set-II).

     Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code:

Set – I (Research Methods)

Set – II (Data Collection Tools)

a. Experimental method

b. Ex post-facto method

c. Descriptive survey method

d. Historical method

i. Using primary and secondary sources

ii. Questionnaire

iii. Standardized tests

iv. Typical characteristic tests


         (a)    (b)        (c)        (d)

(1)     ii        i          iii          iv

(2)     iii       iv        ii           i

(3)     ii        iii        i            iv

(4)     ii        iv        iii           i

Answer is [2]

5. The issue of ‘research ethics’ may be considered pertinent at which stage of research?

(1) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition

(2) At the stage of defining the population of research

(3) At the stage of data collection and interpretation

(4) At the stage of reporting the findings

Answer is [3]

6. In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed?

(1) Doctoral level thesis

(2) Conference of researchers

(3) Workshops and seminars

(4) Symposia

Answer is [1]

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 7 to 12:

The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world, had little impact on Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and adding to the growing disillusionment with the ‘humane pretensions’ of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in Tagore’s later poems and his last testament, Crisis in Civilisation. The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help sympathising with England’s dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting with their backs to the wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand, their own country was practically under military occupation of their own soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies’ victory and was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South-East Asia, would have released an upsurge of creative energy. No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was soon submerged in the great agony of partition, with its inhuman slaughter of the innocents and the uprooting of millions of people from their homeland, followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies, along with Pakistan’s invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a poignant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected, Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in volume, range and variety than it ever was in the past.

Based on the passage answer the following questions from 7 to 12:

7. What was the impact of the last great war on Indian literature?

(1) It had no impact.

(2) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence.

(3) It shook the foundations of literature.

(4) It offered eloquent support to the Western World.

Answer is [2]

8. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?

(1) Offered support to Subhas Bose.

(2) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World.

(3) Expressed loyalty to England.

(4) Encouraged the liberation of countries.

Answer is [2]

9. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?

(1) Indifference to Russia’s plight.

(2) They favoured Japanese militarism.

(3) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties.

(4) They expressed sympathy for England’s dogged courage.

Answer is [4]

10. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.

(1) Military occupation of one’s own soil.

(2) Resistance to colonial occupation.

(3) Great agony of partition.

(4) Victory of Allies.

Answer is [3]

11. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh?

(1) Suspicion of other countries

(2) Continuance of rivalry

(3) Menace of war

(4) National reconstruction

Answer is [4]

12. The passage has the message that

(1) Disasters are inevitable.

(2) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.

(3) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape.

(4) Literature has no relation with war and independence.

Answer is [2]

13. Effective communication pre-supposes

(1) Non-alignment

(2) Domination

(3) Passivity

(4) Understanding

Answer is [4]

14. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people believe in

(1) indeterminate messages

(2) verbal messages

(3) non-verbal messages

(4) aggressive messages

Answer is [3]

15. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being

(1) Sedentary

(2) Staggered

(3) Factual

(4) Sectoral

Answer is [3]

16. Expressive communication is driven by

(1) Passive aggression

(2) Encoder’s personality characteristics

(3) External clues

(4) Encoder-decoder contract

Answer is [2]

17. Positive classroom communication leads to

(1) Coercion

(2) Submission

(3) Confrontation

(4) Persuasion

Answer is [4]

18. Classroom communication is the basis of

(1) Social identity

(2) External inanities

(3) Biased passivity

(4) Group aggression

Answer is [1]

19. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16,?, 36, 343, … is

(1) 30

(2) 49

(3) 125

(4) 81

Answer is [3]

20. The next term in the following series YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI,? will be

(1) TLO

(2) QOL

(3) QLO

(4) GQP

Answer is [2]

21. If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be





Answer is [4]

22. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:

(1) Number of languages a person speaks

(2) Number of children in a household

(3) Population of cities

(4) Weight of students in a class

Answer is [4]

23. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays Rs. 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays Rs. 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glasses, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays Rs. 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups will be

(1) Rs. 40

(2) Rs. 60

(3) Rs. 80

(4) Rs. 70

Answer is [4]

24. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is different. Identify the odd one

(1) Lucknow

(2) Rishikesh

(3) Allahabad

(4) Patna

Answer is [1]

25. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning:

(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.

(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.

(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.

(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.

Answer is [1]

26. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are related in such a manner that if one is undetermined the other must be undetermined, what is their relation?

(1) Contrary

(2) Subcontrary

(3) Contradictory

(4) Sub-altern

Answer is [3]

27. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered inferior or superior to the other, any more than a bird’s wings can be considered superior or inferior to a fish’s fins. What type of argument it is?

(1) Biological

(2) Physiological

(3) Analogical

(4) Hypothetical

Answer is [3]

28. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true but can both be false. Select the code that states those two propositions.


(a) Every student is attentive.

(b) Some students are attentive.

(c) Students are never attentive.

(d) Some students are not attentive.


(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer is [2]

29. Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly.)


(a) Untouchability is a curse.

(b) All hot pans are untouchable.


(i) All hot pans are curse.

(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.

(iii) All curses are untouchability.

(iv) Some curses are untouchability.


(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iii) and (iv)

(4) (ii) and (iv)

Answer is [4]

30. If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false which of the following statements can be claimed to be true?

Select the correct code:

(1) All brave persons win the race.

(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.

(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.

(4) No person who wins the race is brave.

Answer the questions 31 to 35 based on the data given in the table below.

Answer is [2]

The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (in lakh) generated by a publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and journals as three categories of items. Answer questions 31 – 33 based on the data contained in the table.

31. In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue came from books?

(1) 45%

(2) 55%

(3) 35%

(4) 25%

Answer is [1]

32. The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two categories of items, is

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

Answer is [3]

33. If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the year 2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016 must be approximately:

(1) Rs. 194 lakh

(2) Rs. 187 lakh

(3) Rs. 172 lakh

(4) Rs. 177 lakh

Answer is [4]

A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer hard disk, but accidently some of it is lost because of a computer virus. Only the following could be recovered:

Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:

(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.

(b) 40% of the students were females.

(c) One-third of the male students were average.

Answer questions 34 – 36 based on the data given above:

34. How many female students are excellent?

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

Answer is [1]

35. What proportion of female students are good?

(1) 0

(2) 0.25

(3) 0.50

(4) 0.75

Answer is [2]

36. Approximately, what proportion of good students are male?

(1) 0

(2) 0.73

(3) 0.43

(4) 0.27

Answer is [2]

37. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

S1: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.

S2: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.

(1) S1 only

(2) S2 only

(3) Both S1 and S2

(4) Neither S1 nor S2

Answer is [2]

38. Read the following two statements:

I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).

II: The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as copyright.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

(1) Both I and II

(2) Neither I nor II

(3) II only

(4) I only

Answer is [2]

39. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed?

(1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers

(2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)

(3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage

(4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage

Answer is [3]

40. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.0 applications?

(1) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.

(2) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share information online.

(3) Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to create it.

(4) Web2.0 applications use only static pages.

Answer is [2]

41. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in a publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged publication is called

(1) Electronic mail

(2) Data sourcing

(3) Mail merge

(4) Spam mail

Answer is [3]

42. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for

(1) Digital Vector Disc

(2) Digital Volume Disc

(3) Digital Versatile Disc

(4) Digital Visualization Disc

Answer is [3]

43. Assertion (A): Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society.

Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the natural resources.

Choose the correct code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer is [2]

44. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOX) in urban areas is

(1) road transport

(2) commercial sector

(3) energy use in industry

(4) power plants

Answer is [1]

45. Which of the following is not a water-brone disease?

(1) Typhoid

(2) Hepatitis

(3) Cholera

(4) Dengue

Answer is [4]

46. Indian government’s target for power production from small hydro projects by the year 2022 is

(1) 1 Giga-Watt

(2) 5 Giga-Watt

(3) 10 Giga-Watt

(4) 15 Giga-Watt

Answer is [2]

47. In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?

(1) Rwanda

(2) Morocco

(3) South Africa

(4) Algeria

Answer is [1]

48. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological?

(1) Snow avalanche

(2) Sea erosion

(3) Tropical cyclone

(4) Tsunami

Answer is [4]

49. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education?

(a) Exposure to global curriculum

(b) Promotion of elitism in education

(c) Commodification of higher education

(d) Increase in the cost of education

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer is [3]

50. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?

(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.

(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.

(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.

(d) They can grant degrees.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:


(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer is [2]

51. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on

(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.

(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.

(3) Concern for human values.

(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.

Answer is [3]

52. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.

(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.

(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.

(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer is [2]

53. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State?

(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.

(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.

(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.

(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.



Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (b) and (c)

Answer is [1]

54. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good behaviour?

(a) Governor of a State

(b) Attorney General of India

(c) Judges of the High Court

(d) Administrator of a Union Territory

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(1) (a) only

(2) (c) only

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer is [2]

55. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.

(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.

(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.

(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.

(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.

(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.

(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.


(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

Answer is [2]

56. Assertion (A): Learning is a lifelong process.

Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer is [1]

57. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

(1) Course coverage

(2) Students’ interest

(3) Learning outcomes of students

(4) Use of teaching aids in the classroom

Answer is [3]

58. In which teaching method learner’s participation is made optimal and proactive?

(1) Discussion method

(2) Buzz session method

(3) Brainstorming session method

(4) Project method

Answer is [4]

59. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the

(1) Social system of the country

(2) Economic status of the society

(3) Prevailing political system

(4) Educational system

Answer is [4]

60. Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.

Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer is [3]

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