NTA UGC NET Question Paper with Answer Key 4th December 2019 (Morning Shift) Paper - I

1. Which of the following are classroom related factors that influence effectiveness of teaching?

(A) Prior task related behaviour of students

(B) Adherence to linear pattern of communication by the teacher procedures

(C) Socio-economic status of the family to which learners belong

(D) Inappropriate use of technological resources by the teacher

(E) Cultural background of students

Choose your answer from the following options:

A. (A), (B) and (C)

B. (B), (C) and (D)

C. (A), (B) and (D)

D. (C), (D) and (E)

Answer is [C]

2. Which of the following statements differentiate teaching from learning?

(A) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act

(B) Teaching implies learning

(C) Teaching is like selling while learning is middle like buying

(D) Teaching can occur without learning taking place

(E) In teaching, influence is directed towards learning and learner, while in learning it is usually towards oneself

Choose the correct answer from the following options:

A. (A), (C) and (E)

B. (A), (B) and (C)

C. (B), (C) and (D)

D. (C), (D) and (E)

Answer is [A]

3. Which of the following types of assessment is conducted periodically with an eye on standards?

A. Formative assessment

B. Summative assessment

C. Portfolio assessment

D. Performance assessment

Answer is [B]

4. Which of the following sampling procedures will be appropriate for conducting researches with empirico-inductive research paradigm?

A. Simple random sampling procedure

B. Systematic sampling procedure

C. Stratified sampling procedure

D. Any of the non-probability sampling procedures

Answer is [D]

5. When there is an animated discussion between a teacher and his or her students in the classroom, it can be classified as:

A. Horizontal communication

B. Mechanical communication

C. Linear communication

D. Categorical communication

Answer is [A]

6. Which of the following statements differentiate is involved in the argument. "Sound is element because it is caused"?

A. Viruddha or contradictory middle

B. Satpratipaksa or inferentially contradicted middle

C. Sadhyasama or the unproved middle

D. Badhita or non-inferentially contradicted middle

Answer is [A]

7. Which one of the following fallacious hetu (middle term) is not uniformly concomitant with the major term?

A. Asatpratipaksa

B. Auyatireki

C. Anyonya-Asiddha

D. Savyabhicara

Answer is [D]

8.In a certain coding language, 'AEIOU' is written as "TNHDZ'. Using the same coding Language, 'BFJPV will be written as

A. UOIEA

B. AEIOU

C. CGKQW

D. WQKGC

Answer is [B]

9. Information overload in a classroom environment by a teacher will lead to

A. High level participation

B. Semantic precision

C. Effective impression

D. Delayed feedback

Answer is [D]

10. Which of the learning outcomes are intended in teaching organized at understanding level?

A. Longer recall and retention of facts

B. Seeking of relationships and patterns among facts

C. Creative construction and critical interpretation of ideas

D. Mastery of facts and information

Answer is [B]

11. In which of the following formats 'Chapter Scheme' of the document has to be formally approved by a research degree committee in the university?

A. Thesis/dissertation

B. Seminar papers

C. Research articles

D. Research monographs

Answer is [A]

12. In which of the following types of learning materials, the presentations are highly structured and individualised?

A. Textbooks prescribed by the universities

B. Journals and the articles recommended for readings

C. Writings of great thinkers selected for reflective readings

D. Programmed instructional and modular learning material

Answer is [D]

13. A researcher intends to make use of ICT in his/ her research. What considerations should weigh most in such a decision?

(A) Appropriateness of the tool used

(B) Cost involved in procuring it

(C) Availability of tools in the department where research is to be undertaken

(D) Willingness of his/her supervisor to offer help

(E) The company from which the ICT equipment has been procured

Choose your answer from the following options:

A. (A), (B) and (C)

B. (C), (D) and (C)

C. (A), (C) and (D)

D. (B), (C) and (E)

Answer is [A]

14. if 3% of (a + b) = 7% of (a b) and 5% of (a - b) = 4% of(ab) then what percentage of b is a?

A. 47/23 %

B. 23/47%

C. 4700/23%

D. 2300/47%

Answer is [C]

15. Consider the following argument:

Statements: Some chairs are curtains.

All curtains are bedsheets.

Conclusion: Some chairs are bedsheets.

What is the Mood of the above proposition?

A. IAI

B. IAA

C. IIA

D. AII

Answer is [A]

16. Which of the following is converse of 'Some S is P"?

A. Some S is not P

B. Some P is not S

C. Some P is S

D. No P is S

Answer is [C]

17. Which of the following modes of communication can be employed in a classroom for effective teaching?

(A) Top-down

(B) Iconic

(C) Associational

(D) Dissociational

(E) Symbolic

(F) Abstract

Choose the most appropriate option from the following:

A. (A),(B) and (F)

B. (C),(E)and (F)

C. (B),(C) and (E)

D. (A), (C) and (D)

Answer is [A]

18. Given below are two Statements - one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Use of slang in formal teaching makes communication lively and interesting.

Reasons (R): Academic decency demands the avoidance of slang in the classroom environment.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct option:

A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is true, but (R) is false

D. (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer is [D]

19. A verbal communication technique used in teaching is

A. Slow expression of Words

B. Varying the speed of voice and tone

C. Presentation without pause

D. Resorting to semantic jugglery

Answer is [B]

20. According to classical Indian school of logic, what is the correct sequence of steps involved in Anumana (influence)?

A. Upanaya, Pratijna, Hetu, Udaharana, Nigmana

B. Pratijna, Hetu, Upanaya, Udaharana, Nigmana

C. Pratijna, Upanaya,Hetu, Udaharana,Nigmana

D. Pratijna, Hetu, Udaharana, Upanaya, Nigmana

Answer is [D]

21. A certain principal invested at compound interest payable yearly amounts to Rs 10816.00 in 3 years and Rs 11248.64 in 4 years. What is the rate of interest'?

A. 3%

B. 4%

C. 4.5%

D. 5.5%

Answer is [B]

22. A research scholar while submitting his/her thesis did not acknowledge in the preface the help and support of the respondents of questionnaires used. This will be called an instance of

A. Technical lapse

B. Willful negligence

C. Unethical act

D. Lack of respect

Answer is [C]

23. The sum of a number and its inverse is -4. The sum of their cubes is:

A. -52

B. 52

C. 64

D. -64

Answer is [A]

24. What is the exact equivalent discount of three successive discounts of 10%, 15% and 20% by Sale of an article?

A. 35.8%

B. 38.5%

C. 35.5%

D. 38.8%

Answer is [D]

25. A university teacher plans to improve the study habits of students in his/her class. Which type of research paradigm will be helpful in this regard?

A. Evaluative research paradigm

B. Fundamental research paradigm

C. Applied research paradigm

D. Action research paradigm

Answer is [D]

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by 6 students in 5 different subjects in an examination. The numbers in the parenthesis give the maximum marks in each subject. Answer the given questions based on the table:

Subject (Max. Marks)


Name of student

Percentage (%) of marks obtained

Maths

(150)

Chemistry

(130)

Physics

(120)

Biology

(100)

English

(100)

Ankit

90

50

80

60

70

Amar

100

60

70

40

80

Sanya

90

60

85

80

60

Rahul

80

75

65

90

90

Puneet

80

85

70

85

50

Pooja

70

75

50

80

40

26. What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sanya in all the five subjects?

A. 375

B. 395

C. 455

D. 475

Answer is [C]

27. In which subject the performance of the students is worst in terms of percentage of marks?

A. Chemistry

B. Physics

C. Biology

D. English

Answer is [D]

28. How many students obtained 60% and above marks in all the subjects?

A. Three

B. Two

C. One

D. Zero

Answer is [B]

29. What is the average mark obtained by all the six students in Chemistry?

A. 86.66

B. 76.66

C. 66.66

D. 60.00

Answer is [A]

30. What is the overall percentage of marks obtained by Amar?

A. 70%

B. 72%

C. 60%

D. 58.33%

Answer is [B]

31. Database WOS stands for

A. Web of Science

B. Web of Sources

C. World of Science

D. Web of Service

Answer is [A]

32. _______ is a wireless technology built in electronic gadgets for transferring data over short distance

A. WiFi

B. Bluetooth

C. Modem

D. USB

Answer is [B]

33. The term one gigabyte refers to:

A. 1024 petabytes

B. 1024 megabytes

C. 1024 kilobytes

D. 1024 bytes

Answer is [B]

34. The most dominant source of Benzene emissions in ambient air is

A. Cement industry

B. Cigarettes

C. Car exhausts

D. Paints and varnish

Answer is [B]

35. Which one of the following tasks is associated with changing appearance of a document in word processing? A B C D

A. Editing

B. Formatting

C. Writing

D. Printing

Answer is [B]

36. Rashtriya Uchhatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) aims to achieve the following in Higher Education System:

(A) Equity

(B) Access

(C) 50% GER

(D) Excellence

Choose the correct option from those given below:

A. (A), (B) and (C)

B. (A), (C) and (D)

C. (A), (B) and (D)

D. (B) (C) and (D)

Answer is [C]

37. PCI stands for

A. Partial Component Interconnect

B. Partial Component Interaction

C. Peripheral Component Interconnect

D. Peripheral Component Interaction

Answer is [C]

38. The themes of some Sustainable Development Goals are

(A) Climate action

(B) Sustainable cities and communities

(C) Peace, justice and strong institutions

(D) Skill development and decent employment

(E) Green agriculture

(F) Responsible consumption and production

Choose the most appropriate from those given below:

A. (A), (B), (C), (E) and (F)

B. (B), (C), (E) and (F)

C. (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F)

D. (A), (B), (C) and (F)

Answer is [D]

39. Under Green India Mission, how many hectares of degraded forest land is to be brought under afforestation?

A. 02 million hectares

B. 06 million hectares

C. 08 million hectares

D. 20 million hectares

Answer is [B]

40. The most important pollutants that cause degradation of water quality in rivers and streams are

(A) Bacteria

(B) Nutrients

(C) Metals

(D) Total dissolved solids

(E) Algae

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A. (A), (B) and (C)

B. (A), (B) and (D)

C. (A), (B), (D) and (E)

D. (A), (B),(C), (D) and (E)

Answer is [A]

41. Which of the following statements is true in the Indian context?

A. Autonomous colleges can grant degrees independent of universities

B. Autonomous colleges can grant only bachelors degree independent of universities

C. Except doctoral degrees, all other degrees and diplomas can be granted by autonomous colleges

D. Whatever may be the degree or diploma, autonomous colleges can grant them under their own name but under the seal of an affiliated university

Answer is [D]

42. According to GATS (General Agreement on Trade and Services), higher education should be a commodity in the

A. Domestic public sector

B. Domestic private sector

C. Non-trading sector

D. Global marketplace

Answer is [D]

43. The major barriers for access to higher education in India are:

(A) More opportunities of employment for less educated

(B) Government policies

(C) Language of instruction

(D) Economic status

(E) Competition from foreign universities

(F) Gender discrimination in society

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. (A), (B) and (C)

B. (B), (C) and (E)

C. (C), (D) and (F)

D. (D), (E) and (F)

Answer is [C]

44. Identify from the options given below, the co-benefit of Montreal Protocol

A. Impetus to development of energy efficient systems

B. Reduction in carbon dioxide (equivalent) emissions

C. Convergence of efforts of international community in addressing air pollution

D. Control of transboundary movement of hazardous waste

Answer is [B]

45. The national agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they occur, is

A. CAT

B. CDAC

C. CCA

D. ICERT

Answer is [D]

Read the passage carefully and answer questions that follow:

There is no doubt that the market as a reality and political economy as a theory played an important role in the liberal critique. But liberalism is neither the consequence nor the development of these: rather, the market played, in the liberal critique, the role of a “test”. A locus of privileged experience where one can identity the effects of excessive governmentality and even weigh their significance: the analysis of the mechanisms of “dearth” or more generally, of the grain trade in the middle of the eighteenth century was meant to show the point at which governing was always governing too much. Therefore, an analysis to make visible, in the form of evidence, the formation of the value and circulation of wealth —– or, on the contrary, an analysis presupposing the intrinsic invisibility of the connection between individual profit-seeking and the growth of collective wealth economics, in any case shows a basic incompatibility between the optimal development of the economic process and maximization of government procedures. It is by this, more than the play of ideas. The French or English economists broke away from mercantilism and commercialism: they freed reflection on economic practice from the hegemony of the “reason of state” and from the saturation of governmental intervention. By using it as a measure of “governing too much”, they placed it at the limit of governmental action. Liberalism does not derive from juridical thought any more than it does from economic analysis. It is not the idea of political society, but the result of a search for a liberal technology of government.

46. What is incompatible with optimal economic development?

A. Play of ideas

B. Absence of commercialism

C. Political society

D. Excessive government procedures

Answer is [D]

47. The liberal critique examined the implications of

A. Market expansion

B. Too much governance

C. Growth of political economy

D. Politics of marketisation

Answer is [B]

48. Which of the following played a role in the liberal critique?

A. Liberalism as a consequence of market forces

B. Liberalism as an offshoot of political economy

C. Reality of market

D. Political economy as a practice

Answer is [C]

49. What kind of evidence was needed to make the liberal critique visible?

A. Circulation of wealth

B. Pre-supposing individual profit

C. Dearth in supply of grain

D. Incompatibility of growth

Answer is [A]

50. The passage is indicative of the author's preference to

A. Economic hegemony of individuals

B. Limit government control of economics

C. Seek liberalism from juridical thought

D. Promote individual profits

Answer is [B]

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