NTA UGC NET Question Paper with Answer Key 20th June 2019 (Evening Shift) Paper - I
1. Which of the following is an example of higher order of cognitive learning outcome?
(1) Learning of facts and their sequences
(2) Learning roles and action sequences
(3) Learning of concepts and abstractions
(4) Learning of awareness and valuing
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
2. Instructions which encourage live participation and interaction through online classes are called:
(1) Synchronous instructions
(2) Asynchronous instructions
(3) Traditional instructions
(4) Theoretical instructions
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [A]
3. What are the elements of evaluation plan?
(a) Purpose
(b) Resources
(c) Analysis
(d) Authority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) (b) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
4. A hypothesis is:
(1) A certain and established finding.
(2) A part of the research question.
(3) A strategy of evaluating data.
(4) A tentative statement providing an explanation.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
5. From the following list identify the qualitative research characteristics and select your answer from the codes given below:
(i) Creating purpose statements and research questions.
(ii) Stating the purpose and research questions in a broad way.
(iii) Collecting data based on words from a small number of individuals.
(iv) Collecting numeric data and statistical analysis.
(v) Using text analysis and Interpreting larger meanings of the findings
Code:
(1) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (iii) and (v)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [A]
6. Position papers are:
(1) Compiling of academic articles
(2) Providing review articles.
(3) Offering a synopsis of an extended research.
(4) Highlighting of issues and depiction of status.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
7. Case studies are:
(1) Studies conducted in areas of genetics and microbiology.
(2) In-depth examination of a subject and its related conditions.
(3) A report on the existing sociopolitical condition.
(4) Specialized research in the areas of health and sanitation.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [B]
8. Which of the following is the key behavior contributing to effective teaching?
(1) Summarizing what was told by a student.
(2) Encouraging students to elaborate on an answer.
(3) Using direct and indirect questioning.
(4) Explaining concepts in a logical step by step presentation.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
9. Tertiary source of data is:
(1) Films, hoardings and posters
(2) Government gazette, newspapers and magazines.
(3) Information derived from both primary and secondary sources.
(4) Data collected from policy papers
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
10. Which type of evaluation focusses on the identification of deficiencies and difficulties of the learner?
(1) Summative evaluation
(2) Follow up evaluation
(3) Diagnostic evaluation
(4) Criterion—referenced evaluation
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
Q. (11-15): Read the following passage and answer questions.
Perhaps what bothered the media in 1970s was the shift in liberty being suggested. For centuries, journalists had operated on the basis of negative liberty, or freedom from external restraints. Suddenly, however, the thrust was positive freedom, a freedom for pursuit of some predetermined goals. This new social responsibility seems grounded on a school of thought that sees negative liberty as insufficient and ineffective, somewhat like telling people they are free to walk without first making sure they are not crippled. Who better than government is able to provide humanity with appropriate means? Government, even a democratic government, is seen by social responsibility adherents as the only force strong enough to guarantee effective operation of freedom This does not mollify observers who find social responsibility to be only slightly disguised version of authoritarianism. Media philosopher John Merrill has been one of the most outspoken critics of the theory. To him, the proposition that pluralism of ideas should be governmentally mandated is ludicrous. Journalists, he says, must retain their freedom to make their own news and editorial judgements. Even well-intentioned attempts by outside groups seeking media improvement are self-serving, and inevitably lessen the autonomy of journalists, Merrill maintains. This leads us to the issue of media autonomy.
11. What was the basis of the operation of journalists earlier?
(1) Freedom of limited choices
(2) Social responsibility
(3) Free from outside pressure
(4) Government control
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
12. According to John Merrill, seeking improvement in media, is:
(1) Appropriate
(2) Well-intentioned
(3) Inevitable
(4) Self-serving
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
13. The passage critically analyses:
(1) Operation of journalists.
(2) Mandate for government.
(3) Social responsibility theory of media.
(4) Regimented autonomy of journalists.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
14. Some scholars consider social responsibility aspect of media as:
(1) Negative freedom
(2) Pluralism
(3) Democratization of media
(4) Authoritarianism
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
15. Positive freedom means:
(1) Grounded thought
(2) Pursuing certain set goals
(3) Freedom with conditions
(4) Providing identified means
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [B]
16. If proposition ‘some milk is curd’ is taken to be true, then which of the following propositions can be false?
(1) No milk is curd
(2) All milk is curd
(3) Some curd is milk.
(4) Some milk is not curd.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [A]
17. Connotative communication inside the classroom is:
(1) Direct
(2) Critical
(3) Implicit
(4) Explicit
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
18. The sum of all even natural numbers between 1 and 81 is:
(1) 3280
(2) 3321
(3) 1646
(4) 1640
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
19. Communication through colors can result in:
(a) Aesthetic codes
(b) Cultural codes
(c) Semantic codes
(d) Binary codes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a) and (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (a) and (b)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
20. The proposition ‘Some trees are green’ is equivalent to which of the following propositions?
(a) Many trees are green.
(b) Some green things are trees.
(c) Some green things are not non-trees.
(d) Trees are usually green.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) only
(4) (c) and (d)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [A]
21. Identify the reasoning in the following arguments: ‘A pilot without flight plans is like an artistwithout paints.'
(1) Analogical
(2) Deductive
(3) Inductive
(4) Hypothetical
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [A]
22. In the communication process, signs derive meanings through:
(1) The subjectivity of various components.
(2) The objectivity of the decoder.
(3) The network of inter-relations.
(4) The neutrality of the channel.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
23. Language of the communication also constitutes:
(1) The random world
(2) The social world
(3) The divine world
(4) The unsanctified world
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [B]
24. In a bag, there are corns of 5ps, 10ps and 25ps in the ratio of 3:2:1. If there are Rs. 60 in all, how many 5ps coins are there?
(1) 100
(2) 200
(3) 300
(4) 400
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
25. In which method of arriving at knowledge, the emphasis is on both proceeding from particular to general and from general to particular in a combined way?
(1) Inductive method
(2) Deductive method
(3) Scientific method
(4) Analogical method
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
26. Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives:
QPO, NML, KJI, _______.
(1) HOF
(2) CAB
(3) JKL
(4) GHI
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
27. Assertion (A): Media entertainment does not enhance the cultural level of society.
Reason (R): Most media entertainment encourages escapism, not content quality
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [A]
28. Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them. Which of the following conclusions could be validly drawn from the premises?
Premises: (i) All cats are dogs.
(ii) All dogs are cows
Conclusions:
(a) All cats are cows
(b) Some cows are cats.
(c) All dogs are cats.
(d) No cow is dog.
Select the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (d) only
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (b) and (d)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
29. Manoj’s commission is 10% on all sales up to Rs. 10,000 and 5% on all sales exceeding this. He remits Rs. 75,500 to his company after deducting his commission. The total sales will come out to be:
(1) Rs. 78,000
(2) Rs. 80,000
(3) Rs. 85,000
(4) Rs. 90,000
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [B]
30. The simple interest on a certain sum of money for 3 years at 40 per annum is half the compound interest on Rs. 2.000 for 2 years at 10% per annum. The sum invested on simple interest is:
(1) Rs. 8,750
(2) Rs. 1,750
(3) Rs. 2.500
(4) Rs. 3500
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [B]
Q. (31-35): Consider the following two tables (I and II) that show the percentage wise distribution (%) of the number of laptops sold by a shopkeeper during a period of six months from April to September 2018 and the ratio between the number of Laptops sold of brand HP (H) and brand DELL (D) during the same six months. A total of 45000 laptops have been sold during these six months Study these tables I and II and answer the questions that follow.
31. What is the total number of laptops sold of brand D during May and June together?
(1) 9500
(2) 10000
(3) 10500
(4) 15000
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [B]
32. If 35% of the laptops sold of brand H during August were sold at a discount, how many laptops of brand H during that month were sold without a discount?
(1) 882
(2) 1635
(3) 1638
(4) 885
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
33. The number of laptops sold of brand H during April is approximately what percent of the number of laptops sold of brand H during September?
(1) 110
(2) 140
(3) 130
(4) 150
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
34. If the shop keeper earned a profit of Rs. 434 on each laptop sold of brand D during July, what was his total profit earned on the laptops of that brand during the same month?
(1) 6,51,900
(2) 6,46,500
(3) 6,49,500
(4) 6,51,000
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
35. What is the ratio of the number of laptops sold of brand D during April to those sold during September of the same brand?
(1) 119: 145
(2) 116: 135
(3) 119: 135
(4) 119: 130
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
36. Consider the following statements in the context of Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) adopted by the United Nations.
(a) Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger.
(b) Improve maternal health.
(c) Responsible consumption and production.
(d) Reduce child mortality.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
37. Why would BCC: be used in an e-mail?
(1) BCC: allows the recipient to identify all the other recipients in the list when a group email address is used.
(2) BCC: allows the sender to indicate who the email is for if there is more than one recipient
(3) BCC: allows the sender of a message to conceal the recipient entered in the BCC: field from the other recipients
(4) BCC: allows recipients to be visible to all other recipients of the message.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
38. Assertion (A): Night time temperatures in the central parts of a city are generally higher than those over the surrounding rural areas.
Reason (R): Radiation losses over the urban areas are less than that over the rural areas.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [A]
39. Which of the following disasters belongs to the category of nuclear disasters?
(a) Fukushima disaster
(b) Chernobyl disaster
(c) Three mile Island incident
(d) The love canal disaster
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (b), (c) and (d)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [A]
40. Jatin’s laptop bas a LCD screen. The acronym LCD stands for:
(1) Light Crystal Display
(2) Liquid Compact Display
(3) Light Compact Display
(4) Liquid Crystal Display
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
41. Which of the following is an example of proprietary system software?
(1) Linux
(2) Microsoft Internet explorer
(3) Microsoft office
(4) Microsoft windows
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
42. Which one of the following universities is not among the first three that were established during 1857?
(1) Calcutta
(2) Bombay
(3) Delhi
(4) Madras
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
43. “Gyanvani” launched by IGNOU to cover the educational needs of India refers to:
(1) Satellite based educational TY channe
(2) Educational FM Radio network
(3) Global imitative of academic networks
(4) MOOCs
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [B]
44. With respect to computers, which one of the following best describes phishing?
(1) A malicious program installed on a system that stays concealed to avoid detection.
(2) A method of bypassing normal authentication procedures over a connection to a network
(3) A type of unsolicited bulk email of identical messages sent to numerous recipients.
(4) An attempt to acquire sensitive information for malicious reasons, by masquerading as a trustworthy entity
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
45. Which one of the following coordinates, promotes and funds research activities of all social sciences disciplines?
(1) ICPR, New Delhi
(2) IIAS, Shimla
(3) ICSSR, New Delhi
(4) NUEPA, New Delhi
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
46. A special focus on the problems of examination system of India formed a part of which one of the following reports?
(1) Report of the Calcutta university commission.
(2) Report of the University Education commission (1964-66).
(3) Hartog committee report.
(4) Report on standards of University education UGC (1965).
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [D]
47. A computer network which is used within a building is called a:
(1) WAN
(2) MAN
(3) LAN
(4) SAN
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
48. In which of the following Ancient Indian universities, the culture and civilization of Tibet was built mainly through the writings of the scholars?
(1) Nalanda
(2) Vikramsila
(3) Jagaddala
(4) Mithila
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [B]
49. The Paris Agreement aims to limit the temperature rise in this century by how many degrees Celsius above the preindustrial levels?
(1) 1° C
(2) 2° C
(3) 0.5° C
(4) 3° C
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [B]
50. Statement I: Most of the member countries in the International solar Alliance are located between the Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
Statement II: Japan is a member country of the International solar alliance.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I and II
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer is [C]
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